Month: August 2016
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QUESTION 156
Given the following configuration on a switch interface, what happens when a host with the MAC address of 0003.0003.0003 is directly connected to the switch port? switchport mode access switchport port-security switchport port-security maximum 2 switchport port-security mac-address 0002.0002.0002 switchport port-security violation shutdown
A. The port will shut down.
B. The host will be allowed to connect. TestInside Help You Pass Any IT Exam http://www.TestInside.com Testinside
C. The host will be refused access.
D. The host can only connect through a hub/switch where 0002.0002.0002 is already connected.
Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 157
In the use of 802.1X access control, which three protocols are allowed through the switch port before authentication takes place? (Choose three.)
A. STP
B. CDP
C. EAP MD5
D. TACACS+
E. EAP-over-LAN
F. protocols not filtered by an ACL
Correct Answer: ABE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 158
When you issue a command show port 3/1 on an Ethernet port, you observe the Giants column has a non-zero entry. What could cause this?
A. IEEE 802.1Q
B. IEEE 802.10
C. misconfigured NIC
D. user configuration
Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 159
Which VTP information does a Catalyst switch advertise on its trunk ports when using VTP? (Choose two.)
A. VTP mode
B. STP root status
C. negotiation status
D. management domain
E. configuration revision number
Correct Answer: DE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
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QUESTION 160
What are two benefits provided in VTP Version 2 but NOT in VTP Version 1? (Choose two.)
A. supports Token Ring VLANs
B. allows VLAN consistency checks
C. saves VLAN configuration memory
D. reduces the amount of configuration necessary
E. allows active redundant links when used with spanning tree
Correct Answer: AB Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 161
Refer to the exhibit. All network links are FastEthernet. Although there is complete connectivity throughout the network, Front Line users have been complaining that they experience slower network performance when accessing the server farm than the Reception office experiences. Based on the exhibit, which two statements are true? (Choose two.)
A. Changing the bridge priority of S1 to 4096 would improve network performance.
B. Changing the bridge priority of S1 to 36864 would improve network performance.
C. Changing the bridge priority of S2 to 36864 would improve network performance.
D. Changing the bridge priority of S3 to 4096 would improve network performance. TestInside Help You Pass Any IT Exam http://www.TestInside.com Testinside
E. Disabling the Spanning Tree Protocol would improve network performance.
F. Upgrading the link between S2 and S3 to Gigabit Ethernet would improve performance.
Correct Answer: BD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 162
Refer to the exhibit. PCs in VLAN 2 are not able to communicate with PCs in VLAN 3. What could be
the cause?
A. IP routing is not enabled.
B. VTP is not configured correctly on the interfaces.
C. The command mls rp management-interface is missing.
D. The command mls rp ip must be disabled to enable the routing.
Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 163
Which three statements are true of the Link Aggregation Control Protocol (LACP)? (Choose three.)
A. LACP is used to connect to non-Cisco devices.
B. LACP packets are sent with the command channel-group 1 mode desirable.
C. LACP packets are sent with the command channel-group 1 mode active.
D. Standby interfaces should be configured with a higher priority.
E. Standby interfaces should be configured with a lower priority.
Correct Answer: ACD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
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QUESTION 164
Refer to the exhibit. A workstation PC is connected to the Cisco IP phone access port. Based on the
configuration in the exhibit, how will the traffic be managed?
A. The IP phone access port will override the priority of the frames received from the PC.
B. The IP phone access port will trust the priority of the frames received from the PC.
C. The switch port Fa0/4 will override the priority of the frames received from the PC.
D. The switch port Fa0/4 will trust the priority for the frames received from the PC.
Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 165
Refer to the exhibit. A trunk link is connected between switch A_SW and switch D_SW. Based on the
configuration shown in the exhibit, how would the traffic coming from the switch A_SW be managed?
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A. The trunk port Fa0/1 on switch A_SW will trust all CoS values on the frames coming from the IP phone.
B. The trunk port Fa0/1 on switch A_SW will trust all CoS values on the frames received on the IP phone.
C. The trunk port Fa0/1 on switch D_SW will trust all CoS values on the frames coming from port Fa0/1 on A_SW.
D. The trunk port Fa0/1 on switch D_SW will trust all CoS values on the frames received on the A_SW switch port Fa0/4.
E. The trunk port Fa0/1 on switch D_SW will trust all CoS values on the frames received on the IP phone port.
Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 166
Which option correctly identifies the Cisco IOS switching methods in descending order from the fastest
method to the slowest method?
A. CEF, distributed CEF (dCEF), fast switching, process switching
B. distributed CEF (dCEF), CEF, fast switching, process switching
C. fast switching, process switching, distributed CEF (dCEF), CEF
D. process switching, fast switching, distributed CEF (dCEF), CEF
E. process switching, distributed CEF (dCEF), CEF, fast switching
F. process switching, CEF, distributed CEF (dCEF), fast switching TestInside Help You Pass Any IT Exam http://www.TestInside.com Testinside
Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 167
What will occur when a nonedge switch port that is configured for Rapid Spanning Tree does not
receive a BPDU from its neighbor for three consecutive hello time intervals?
A. RSTP information is automatically aged out.
B. The port sends a TCN to the root bridge.
C. The port moves to listening state.
D. The port becomes a normal spanning tree port.
Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 168
Refer to the exhibit. Why does the trust state of interface FastEthernet 0/3 show “not trusted”?
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A. DSCP map needs to be configured for VOIP.
B. ToS has not been configured.
C. ToS has been misconfigured.
D. The command mls qos needs to be turned on in global configuration mode.
E. There is not a Cisco Phone attached to the interface.
Correct Answer: E Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
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QUESTION 169
What two things will occur when an edge port receives a BPDU? (Choose two.)
A. The port immediately transitions to the Forwarding state.
B. The switch generates a Topology Change Notification (TCN) BPDU.
C. The port immediately transitions to the err-disable state.
D. The port becomes a normal STP switch port.
Correct Answer: BD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 170
What two pieces of information will the show vlan id 5 command display? (Choose two.)
A. VLAN information on port 0/5
B. ports in VLAN 5
C. MTU and type
D. utilization
E. filters
Correct Answer: BC Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 171
Based on the network diagram and routing table output in the exhibit, which of these statements is
true?
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A. InterVLAN routing has been configured properly, and the workstations have connectivity to each other.
B. InterVLAN routing will not occur since no routing protocol has been configured.
C. Although interVLAN routing is not enabled, both workstations will have connectivity to each other.
D. Although interVLAN routing is enabled, the workstations will not have connectivity to each other.
Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 172
What is the default VTP advertisement for subset advertisements in Catalyst switches that are in server or client mode?
A. 5 seconds
B. 10 seconds
C. 30 seconds
D. 1 minute
E. 5 minutes
Correct Answer: E Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 173
Refer to the exhibit. Based upon the debug output that is shown, which three statements about HSRP
are true? (Choose three.)
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A. The final active router is the router with IP address 172.16.11.111.
B. The router with IP address 172.16.11.111 has preempt configured.
C. The priority of the router with IP address 172.16.11.112 is preferred over the router with IP address
Correct Answer: Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 174
16.11.111.
A. The IP address 172.16.11.115 is the virtual HSRP IP address.
B. The router with IP address 172.16.11.112 has nonpreempt configured.
C. The router with IP address 172.16.11.112 is using default HSRP priority.
Correct Answer: AB Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 175
What must be configured on a Cisco switch in order to advertise VLAN information?
A. VTP password
B. VTP domain name
C. VTP revision number
D. VTP mode
E. VTP pruning
Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 176
Which describes the default load balancing scheme used by the Gateway Load Balancing Protocol
(GLBP)?
A. per host basis using a round-robin scheme
B. per host basis using a strict priority scheme
C. per session using a round-robin scheme
D. per session using a strict priority scheme
E. per GLBP group using a round-robin scheme TestInside Help You Pass Any IT Exam http://www.TestInside.com Testinside
F. per GLBP group using a strict priority scheme
Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 177
When authentication is required, where must 802.1x be configured in order to connect a PC to a
switch?
A. client PC only
B. switch port only
C. switch port and client PC
D. switch port and local router port
Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 178
How are STP timers and state transitions affected when a topology change occurs in an STP
environment?
A. All ports will temporarily transition to the learning state for a period equal to the max age timer plus the forward delay interval.
B. All ports will transition temporarily to the learning state for a period equal to the forward delay interval.
C. The default aging time for MAC address entries will be reduced for a period of the max age timer plus the forward delay interval.
D. The default hello time for configuration BDPUs will be reduced for the period of the max age timer.
Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 179
Refer to the exhibit. VTP has been enabled on the trunk links between all switches within the TEST
domain. An administrator has recently enabled VTP pruning. Port 1 on Switch 1 and port 2 on Switch 4 are
assigned to VLAN 2. A broadcast is sent from the host connected to Switch 1. Where will the broadcast
propagate?
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A. Every switch in the network receives the broadcast and will forward it out all ports.
B. Every switch in the network receives the broadcast, but only Switch 4 will forward it out port 2.
C. Switches 1, 2, and 4 will receive the broadcast, but only Switch 4 will forward it out port 2.
D. Only Switch 4 will receive the broadcast and will forward it out port 2.
Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 180
Refer to the exhibit. VLAN 1 and VLAN 2 are configured on the trunked links between Switch A and Switch B. Port Fa 0/2 on Switch B is currently in a blocking state for both VLANs. What should be done to load balance VLAN traffic between Switch A and Switch B?
A. Lower the port priority for VLAN 1 on port 0/1 for Switch A.
B. Lower the port priority for VLAN 1 on port 0/2 for Switch A.
C. Make the bridge ID of Switch B lower than the ID of Switch A.
D. Enable HSRP on the access ports.
Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 181
Refer to the exhibit. Which two problems are the most likely cause of the exhibited output? (Choose
two.)
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A. spanning tree issues
B. HSRP misconfiguration
C. VRRP misconfiguration
D. physical layer issues
E. transport layer issues
Correct Answer: BD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 182
Refer to the exhibit. Initially, LinkA is connected and forwarding traffic. A new LinkB is then attached between SwitchA and HubA. Which two statements are true about the possible result of attaching the second link? (Choose two.)
A. The switch port attached to LinkB will not transistion to up.
B. One of the two switch ports attached to the hub will go into blocking mode when a BPDU is received.
C. Both switch ports attached to the hub will transition to the blocking state.
D. A heavy traffic load could cause BPDU transmissions to be blocked and leave a switching loop.
E. The switch port attached to LinkA will immediately transition to the blocking state.
Correct Answer: BD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
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QUESTION 183
Refer to the exhibit and the partial configuration on routers R1 and R2. Hot Standby Routing Protocol (HSRP) is configured on the network to provide network redundancy for the IP traffic. The network administrator noticed that R2 does not became active when the R1 serial0 interface goes down. What should be changed in the configuration to fix the problem?
A. R2 should be configured with a HSRP virtual address.
B. R2 should be configured with a standby priority of 100.
C. The Serial0 interface on router R1 should be configured with a decrement value of 20.
D. The Serial1 interface on router R2 should be configured with a decrement value of 20.
Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 184
Refer to the exhibit. Which statement is true about the output?
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A. The port on switch CAT1 is forwarding and sending BPDUs correctly.
B. The port on switch CAT1 is blocking and sending BPDUs correctly.
C. The port on switch CAT2 is forwarding and receiving BPDUs correctly.
D. The port on switch CAT2 is blocking and sending BPDUs correctly.
E. The port on switch CAT3 is forwarding and receiving BPDUs correctly.
F. The port on switch CAT3 is forwarding, sending, and receiving BPDUs correctly.
Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 185
Refer to the exhibit. What statement is true based upon the configuration of router R1 and router R2?
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A. Router R1 will become the active virtual gateway.
B. Router R2 will become the active virtual gateway.
C. The hello and hold timers are incompatible with multi-homed BGP.
D. The hello and hold timers are incompatible with OSPF type 5 LSAs.
E. Router R1 will become the master for Virtual Router 1, and router R2 will become the backup for Virtual Router 2.
F. Router R2 will become the master for Virtual Router 1, and router R1 will become the backup for Virtual Router 2.
Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 186
Refer to the exhibit. The switchport output in Figure 1 displays the default settings of interface
FastEthernet 0/13 on switch SW1. Figure 2 displays the desired interface settings. Which command
sequence would configure interface FastEthernet 0/13 as displayed in Figure 2?
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A. SW1(config-if)# switchport trunk encapsulation dot1q SW1(config-if)# switchport mode trunk SW1 (config-if)# switchport trunk native DATA SW1(config-if)# switchport trunk allowed vlan 1,10,20
B. SW1(config-if)# switchport trunk encapsulation dot1q SW1(config-if)# switchport mode dynamic auto SW1(config-if)# switchport trunk native DATA SW1(config-if)# witchport trunk allowed vlan add 1,10,20
C. SW1(config-if)# switchport trunk encapsulation dot1q SW1(config-if)# switchport mode dynamic desirable SW1(config-if)# switchport trunk native vlan DATA SW1(config-if)# switchport trunk allowed vlan 1,10,20
D. SW1(config-if)# switchport trunk encapsulation dot1q SW1(config-if)# switchport mode dynamic desirable SW1(config-if)# switchport trunk native vlan 10 SW1(config-if)# switchport trunk allowed vlan 1,10,20
E. SW1(config-if)# switchport trunk encapsulation dot1q SW1(config-if)# switchport mode dynamic desirable SW1(config-if)# switchport trunk native vlan 10
Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 187
Refer to the exhibit. For what purpose is the command show ip cef used?
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A. to display rewritten IP unicast packets
B. to display ARP resolution packets
C. to display ARP throttling
D. to display TCAM matches
E. to display CEF-based MLS lookups
F. to display entries in the Forwarding Information Base (FIB)
Correct Answer: F Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 188
Which two statements are true about HSRP, VRRP, and GLBP? (Choose two.)
A. GLBP allows for router load balancing of traffic from a network segment without the different host IP configurations required to achieve the same results with HSRP.
B. GLBP allows for router load balancing of traffic from a network segment by utilizing the creation of multiple standby groups.
C. GLBP and VRRP allow for MD5 authentication, whereas HSRP does not.
D. Unlike HSRP and VRRP, GLBP allows automatic selection and simultaneous use of multiple available gateways.
E. HSRP allows for multiple upstream active links being simultaneously used, whereas GLBP does not.
Correct Answer: AD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
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QUESTION 189
Refer to the exhibit. Host A and Host B are connected to the Catalyst 3550 switch and have been
assigned to their respective VLANs. The rest of the 3550 configuration is the default configuration. Host A is able to ping its default gateway, 10.10.10.1, but is unable to ping Host B. Given the output displayed in the exhibit, which statement is true?
A. HSRP must be configured on SW1.
B. A separate router is required to support interVLAN routing.
C. Interface VLAN 10 must be configured on the SW1 switch.
D. The global config command ip routing must be configured on the SW1 switch.
E. VLANs 10 and 15 must be created in the VLAN database mode.
F. VTP must be configured to support interVLAN routing.
Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 190
Refer to the exhibit and the show interfaces fastethernet0/1 switchport outputs. Users in VLAN 5 on
switch SW_A complain that they do not have connectivity to the users in VLAN 5 on switch SW_B. What
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A. Configure the same number of VLANs on both switches.
B. Create switch virtual interfaces (SVI) on both switches to route the traffic.
C. Define VLAN 5 in the allowed list for the trunk port on SW_A.
D. Disable pruning for all VLANs in both switches.
E. Define VLAN 5 in the allowed list for the trunk port on SW_B
Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 191
What does the Catalyst switch interface configuration command switchport trunk native vlan 7
accomplish?
A. configures the interface to be a trunking port and causes traffic on VLAN 7 to be 802.1q tagged
B. causes the interface to apply ISL framing for traffic on VLAN 7
C. configures the trunking interface to send traffic from VLAN 7 untagged
D. configures the trunking interface to forward traffic from VLAN 7
Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
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QUESTION 192
Refer to the exhibit. The show port-security interface fa0/1 command was issued on switch SW1.
Given the output that was generated, which two security statement are true? (Choose two.)
A. Interface FastEthernet 0/1 was configured with the switchport port-security aging command.
B. Interface FastEthernet 0/1 was configured with the switchport port-security protect command.
C. Interface FastEthernet 0/1 was configured with the switchport port-security violation restrict command.
D. When the number of secure IP addresses reaches 10, the interface will immediately shut down.
E. When the number of secure MAC addresses reaches 10, the interface will immediately shut down and an SNMP trap notification will be sent.
Correct Answer: BE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 193
Which two statements about the various implementations of STP are true? (Choose two.)
A. Common Spanning Tree maintains a separate spanning-tree instance for each VLAN configured in the network.
B. The Spanning Tree Protocol (STP) is an evolution of the IEEE 802.1w standard.
C. Per-VLAN Spanning Tree (PVST) supports 802.1Q trunking. TestInside Help You Pass Any IT Exam http://www.TestInside.com Testinside
D. Per-VLAN Spanning Tree Plus(PVST+) is an enhancement to 802.1Q specification and is supported only on Cisco devices.
E. Rapid Spanning Tree Protocol (RSTP) includes features equivalent to Cisco PortFast, UplinkFast, and BackboneFast for faster network reconvergence.
F. Multiple Spanning Tree (MST) assumes one spanning-tree instance for the entire Layer 2 network, regardless of the multiple number of VLANs.
Correct Answer: DE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 194
Refer to the exhibit and the partial configuration of switch SW_A and SW_B. STP is configured on all
switches in the network. SW_B receives this error message on the console port:
00:06:34:
%CDP-4-DUPLEX_MISMATCH: duplex mismatch discovered on FastEthernet0/5 (not half
duplex),
with SW_A FastEthernet0/4 (half duplex) ,
with TBA05071417(Cat6K-B) 0/4 (half duplex).
What would be the possible outcome of the problem?
A.
The root port on switch SW_A will automatically transition to full-duplex mode.
B.
The root port on switch SW_B will fallback to full-duplex mode.
C.
The interfaces between switches SW_A and SW_B will transition to a blocking state.
D.
Interface Fa 0/6 on switch SW_B will transition to a forwarding state and create a bridging loop. TestInside Help You Pass Any IT Exam http://www.TestInside.com Testinside
Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 195
Which two statements are true about BPDU port-guard and BPDU filtering? (Choose two.)
A. BPDU port-guard can be enabled globally, whereas BPDU filtering must be enabled on a per-interface basis.
B. When globally enabled, BPDU port-guard and BPDU filtering apply only to PortFast enabled ports.
C. When globally enabled, BPDU port-guard and BPDU filtering apply only to trunking-enabled ports.
D. When a BPDU is received on a BPDU port-guard enabled port, the interface goes into the err-disabled state.
E. When a BPDU is received on a BPDU filtering enabled port, the interface goes into the err-disabled state.
F. When a BPDU is received on a BPDU filtering enabled port, the interface goes into the STP blocking state.
Correct Answer: BD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 196
Refer to the exhibit. Switch 15 is configured as the root switch for VLAN 10 but not for VLAN 20. If the
STP configuration is correct, what will be true about Switch 15?
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A. All ports will be in forwarding mode.
B. All ports in VLAN 10 will be in forwarding mode.
C. All ports in VLAN 10 will be in forwarding mode and all ports in VLAN 20 will be in blocking mode.
D. All ports in VLAN 10 will be in forwarding mode and all ports in VLAN 20 will be in standby mode.
Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 197
Refer to the exhibit. Which statement is true?
A. IP traffic matching access list ABC is forwarded through VLANs 5-10.
B. IP traffic matching VLAN list 5-10 will be forwarded, and all other traffic will be dropped.
C. All VLAN traffic matching VLAN list 5-10 will be forwarded, and all traffic matching access list ABC is dropped.
D. All VLAN traffic in VLANs 5-10 that match access list ABC will be forwarded, and all else will be dropped.
Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 198
Refer to the exhibit. Switch P1S1 is not applying VLAN updates from switch P2S1. What are three
reasons why this is not occurring? (Choose three.)
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A. Switch P2S1 is in server mode.
B. Switch P1S1 is in transparent mode.
C. The MD5 digests do not match.
D. The passwords do not match.
E. The VTP domains are different.
F. VTP trap generation is disabled on both switches.
Correct Answer: BDE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 199
Refer to the exhibit. Based upon the output of show vlan on switch CAT2, what can we conclude about
interfaces Fa0/13 and Fa0/14?
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A. that interfaces Fa0/13 and Fa0/14 are in VLAN 1
B. that interfaces Fa0/13 and Fa0/14 are down
C. that interfaces Fa0/13 and Fa0/14 are trunk interfaces
D. that interfaces Fa0/13 and Fa0/14 have a domain mismatch with another switch
E. that interfaces Fa0/13 and Fa0/14 have a duplex mismatch with another switch
Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 200
What must be the same to make multiple switches part of the same Multiple Spanning Tree (MST)?
A. VLAN instance mapping and revision number
B. VLAN instance mapping and member list
C. VLAN instance mapping, revision number, and member list
D. VLAN instance mapping, revision number, member list, and timers
Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
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QUESTION 147
What would be a good initial SAN-migration project for a small or medium-sized business that possesses ample WAN bandwidth, but that has an immediate need to reduce spending and to maximize resources?
A. Reduce the WAN bandwidth.
B. Implement FCIP to consolidate all remote SANs.
C. Implement backup consolidation.
D. Centralize the data center and implement an iSCSI solution.
Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 148
Exhibit:
Refer to the exhibit. Which three outcomes would a customer realize by performing the migration from a multitier fabric design to a consolidated design? (Choose three.)
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A. lower effective port cost
B. high availability because of the multifaceted redundancy that is built into the Cisco MDS switch
C. lower effective port count
D. higher effective port cost
E. higher effective port count
F. lower availability because there are fewer fabric switches for failover
Correct Answer: ABE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 149
What are two MDS features that increase the efficiency of a multiple switch Fibre Channel fabric? (Choose two.)
A. Port Channel
B. CDP
C. FCP
D. FCC
E. CUP
Correct Answer: AD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 150
What provides storage virtualization from IBM?
A. Advanced Services Module (ASM)
B. Caching Services Module (CSM)
C. Storage Services Module (SSM)
D. Cisco MDS 9000 32-port 1/2-Gbps FC Module
E. IP Multiprotocol Services Module
Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 151
A customer is concerned about the security of the SAN. The customer wants to prevent unauthorized hosts and switches from connecting to the SAN fabric. Which technology should be enabled on the Cisco MDS 9000 Series SAN to accommodate this requirement?
Actualtests.com – The Power of Knowing 642-355
A. DHCAP
B. role-based authorization
C. zones
D. SSH
Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 152
Which four secure management protocols are used to enable intelligent SAN security? (Choose four.)
A. SSH
B. Secure TFTP
C. SNMP
D. FTP
E. DNS
F. RADIUS-based AAA
Correct Answer: ABCD Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 153
When designing a SAN, what is considered to be the most significant security threat?
A. Denial of Service attacks
B. Management Access
C. WWN Spoofing
D. FC_ID Spoofing
E. Host to Storage data paths
Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 154
Which tool requires the Cisco Fabric Manager Server License to operate?
A. Cisco Performance Manager
B. Cisco Fabric Manager
C. Cisco Device Manager
D. Cisco Fabric Analyzer Actualtests.com – The Power of Knowing 642-355
Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 155
What are two characteristics of iSCSI? (Choose two.)
A. iSCSI initiators cannot be members of more than one VSAN.
B. The port VSAN of an iSCSI interface cannot be modified.
C. iSCSI cannot benefit from existing IP QoS.
D. By default, dynamically mapped iSCSI initiators are members of VSAN 1.
E. The IPS module creates one or more FC virtual N_Ports for each iSCSI host.
F. By default, all statically mapped iSCSI initiators are members of VSAN 4094.
Correct Answer: DE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 156
In a core-edge SAN implementation, which statement is true about oversubscription?
A. When using full-rate mode ports, there is no oversubscription in a core-edge implementation.
B. A core-edge design has manageable oversubscription, but at the cost of used ISL ports.
C. Oversubscription in a core-edge design is implemented by using N_Ports.
D. When using a core-edge design, there is only oversubscription when it is implemented in a heterogeneous environment.
Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 157
Which technology should be used to provide transparent low latency FC transport across a metropolitan area?
A. DWDM
B. FCIP
C. iSCSI
D. iFCP
Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Actualtests.com – The Power of Knowing 642-355
QUESTION 158
Which Fibre Channel SAN topology maximizes performance and expandability?
A. multi-point
B. point-to-point
C. arbitrated loop
D. switched fabric
E. star
Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 159
What are three causes of host oversubscription? (Choose three.)
A. the operating system
B. the PCI bus limitations
C. the RTO and RPO values
D. whether the HBA has a flat FCIDs assigned
E. the limits on the maximum I/O and bandwidth rate
Correct Answer: ABE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 160
What are three array characteristics that are crucial when planning a SAN design? (Choose three.)
A. fan-in ratio
B. connection speed
C. embedded cache controller
D. RAID level support
E. active/passive controller
Correct Answer: BCE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 161
What are two benefits of the Cisco MDS Series Switches that increase the overall resiliency of SAN extension? (Choose two.)
Actualtests.com – The Power of Knowing 642-355
A. VSANs and IVR can eliminate the potential disruption of a WAN failure.
B. VSANs and IVR can increase resiliency by combining control traffic and data traffic over the WAN.
C. Parallel tunnels and PortChannels eliminate failure of every VSAN or IVR in the local fabric.
D. PortChannels and VSANs can be used with FCIP to provide end-to-end redundancy and load balancing.
E. Recovery at the PortChannel level, instead of at the FSPF routing level, provides nondisruptive recovery.
Correct Answer: DE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 162
A customer is planning to deploy a new storage-area-network infrastructure. The customer has five buildings within corporate headquarters, each with a separate data center. Four of the five data centers serve separate business units, while the fifth serves as the primary data center for the entire company. The customer would like to deploy the SAN in such a way that each of the five data centers will have its own storage-network infrastructure and connectivity amongst each other. The customer is planning to enable long-distance connectivity from the primary data center for the purposes of replicating data from all of the data centers across the country. Which SAN topology would you recommend that the customer deploy?
A. core-edge
B. collapsed core
C. partial mesh
D. full mesh
Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 163
Which statement is true about when the Cisco MDS switch is operating in native mode?
A. Native mode is the only mode available on the MDS switch, and thus the switch is able to operate with all other storage switches because all storage switches are certified by SNIA.
B. If the products of other storage-switch vendors strictly adhere to published standards, they will be able to interoperate with MDS in native mode.
C. Most commonly deployed switches in the marketplace today can interoperate with the switches of other vendors while functioning in their default or native mode.
D. Non-MDS switches are able to interpret the Cisco EISL header and thus can Actualtests.com – The Power of Knowing 642-355 interpret VSAN information.
Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 164
What are three key benefits of implementing a SAN using iSCSI? (Choose three.)
A. uses existing IP networking, monitoring, and management infrastructure
B. is more efficient than FC since it requires fewer encapsulations
C. maintains consistent performance over IP networks of varying distances
D. significant capital cost reduction by substituting iSCSI as a transport technology
E. extends existing FC SAN to IP connected hosts
Correct Answer: ADE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 165
At which point can security on a Fibre Channel SAN be implemented? (Choose three.)
A. storage array
B. server
C. Fibre Channel switch
D. GigE NIC
E. SFP connector
Correct Answer: ABC Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 166
A customer recently deployed a core-edge storage network infrastructure that consists of several Cisco MDS directors and fabric switches. The directors are deployed in the core of the network, and the fabric switches are deployed as edge devices. The edge devices are connected to the core by PortChannels, which consist of four links. The customer is interested in in-band management of the fabric using TCP/IP. Which two configurations are required for enabling in-band management of the fabric using TCP/IP? (Choose two.)
A. VRRP
B. FCIP
C. IPFC
D. synchronization of management users and passwords Actualtests.com – The Power of Knowing 642-355
E. VSAN IP addresses
Correct Answer: CE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 167
A customer has deployed two Cisco MDS 9509 Multilayer Directors. One MDS 9509 is deployed in each of two separate data centers. The primary data center is always active, and the secondary data center is considered a standby site. The data centers are connected together by a single Gigabit Ethernet connection that is shared by many departmental networks within the company. The network connection is unreliable and is frequently out of service. The storage administrator needs to synchronously replicate data from an array in the production data center to an array in the standby data center, but is concerned about the network instability impacting the production data center. Which feature would you recommend to the administrator to minimize disruption?
A. PortChannel
B. Fibre Channel over IP
C. Inter-VSAN Routing
D. Fibre Channel Congestion Control
E. Fibre Channel timeout values
Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 168
Select three characteristics of the Cisco coarse wave division multiplexing (CWDM) solution. (Choose three.)
A. multiplexes up to eight wavelengths across a single fiber pair
B. supports a maximum connection length of 220 kilometers
C. supports both linear and ring topologies
D. requires OADMs (optical add/drop multiplexers) to aggregate multiple wavelengths across the same fiber pair
E. can be optically amplified to extend the distance characteristics
Correct Answer: ACD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 169
What are three reasons to implement VSANs in a Fibre Channel SAN? (Choose three.)
Actualtests.com – The Power of Knowing 642-355
A. to reduce network infrastructure requirements
B. to increase data security
C. to enable port-channeling
D. to enable TCP/IP routing
E. to share SAN extension capability using EISLs
Correct Answer: ABE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 170
What is considered the optimal topology for deployment of Fibre Channel SANs using Cisco MDS family products? (Choose two.)
A. mesh
B. ring
C. core-edge
D. collapsed core
E. core-edge with VSAN
Correct Answer: DE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 171
A large credit card processing firm is adding a second data center to support business continuance. What is the recommended solution for extending the SAN to the second data center if both data centers are active?
A. asynchronous replication using FCIP
B. dual homed servers, and IP connectivity using multiple paths
C. iSCSI installation and a bridge the Ethernet network to the Fibre Channel fabric
D. synchronous replication using DWDM
Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 172
A customer has storage arrays from multiple vendors, and is considering a virtualization solution to simplify storage management. Choose three advantages of using a Cisco MDS-based virtualization solution with an MDS 9500 Series Director instead of host-based or storage-based virtualization solutions. (Choose three.)
A. host and storage heterogeneity Actualtests.com – The Power of Knowing 642-355
B. LUN masking that is simpler to implement
C. virtualization that is closer to the target
D. virtualization that is embedded in the switch module
E. availability
Correct Answer: ADE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 173
A customer is considering designing a new storage-network infrastructure to simplify storage network management. The existing solution uses ten 16-port 1-Gbps Fibre Channel switches. Two of the switches are deployed as core switches, and the remaining eight switches are deployed as edge switches. Each edge switch has an ISL to each of the two core switches. The disk array has four 1-Gbps Fibre Channel interfaces. Two interfaces connect to each of the core switches. Each of the 96 servers has a single 1-Gbps Fibre Channel host bus adapter. Which configuration would provide equivalent or better performance while simplifying infrastructure management?
A. two Cisco MDS 9140 Fabric Switches
B. two Cisco MDS 9216 Fabric Switches, each with one 32-port Fibre Channel line card
C. one Cisco MDS 9506 Multilayer Director with two 16-port Fibre Channel line cards and two 32-port Fibre Channel line cards
D. one Cisco MDS 9506 Multilayer Director with four 32-port Fibre Channel line cards
Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 174
Which three applications would be best suited for a SAN rather than a NAS environment? (Choose three.)
A. web content services
B. order entry and inventory tracking
C. enterprise resource planning (ERP)
D. office productivity suites (for example, Microsoft Office)
E. credit card transactions
F. engineering collaboration (for example, CAD and CAM)
Correct Answer: BCE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Actualtests.com – The Power of Knowing 642-355
QUESTION 175
A fully loaded Cisco MDS 9506 Multilayer Director requires 2190 watts of power. If 110-volt power is provided to the switch, at which power mode would the switch operate?
A. The director would operate in redundant mode only.
B. The director would operate in combined mode only.
C. The director would operate in redundant mode or combined mode.
D. The director cannot operate with 110-volt power.
Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 176
What feature of the MDS 9000 family would be most valuable in establishing a baseline of the traffic load on an existing network prior to making changes?
A. SPAN
B. RSPAN
C. FC-SP
D. Performance Manager
E. AAA
Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 177
What are three advantages of a collapsed-core architecture? (Choose three.)
A. This design provides the most efficient use of ports because no ports are consumed for ISLs.
B. The absence of ISLs significantly decreases reliability and manageability.
C. The absence of any oversubscription increases switch throughput.
D. Since there are fewer available paths over which traffic may travel, FSPF values are higher.
E. Ports can be scaled easily by adding hot-swappable blades without disrupting traffic.
F. The highest performance is achieved by director-class switches, because the high-speed backplane provides low fixed latency between any two ports.
Correct Answer: AEF Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Actualtests.com – The Power of Knowing 642-355
QUESTION 178
A customer wants to consolidate the storage in an existing SAN where Cisco MDS Series Switches are deployed. How can the customer accomplish this goal and still be able to retain full access to the data?
A. dual supervisor modules
B. virtual output queuing (VOQ)
C. stateful failover
D. universal interoperability mode 4
E. per-VSAN FSPF routing
Correct Answer: E Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 179
A customer is designing a SAN for each of two data centers. The two data centers are connected by dark fiber, which is owned by the customer. Cisco ONS platforms terminate the fiber and provide service aggregation. The customer requirements include that the SAN in each data center meet or exceed five nines of availability and be interconnected using 16 separate lambdas. The customer has four storage devices in each data center, and each storage device has four Fibre Channel interfaces. Each data center has 32 servers, and each server has two host bus adapters. The majority of the servers require only 20 to 30MBps of throughput on average, but four of the servers require 150 MBps of throughput on average. What will provide the most cost-effective design to satisfy these requirements?
A. two Cisco MDS 9216 Fabric Switches in each data center, each MDS 9216 with an additional 16-port Fibre Channel line card
B. two Cisco MDS 9216 Fabric Switches in each data center, each MDS 9216 with an additional 32-port Fibre Channel line card
C. two Cisco MDS 9506 Multilayer Directors with one in each data center, each MDS 9506 with two 16-port Fibre Channel line cards and two 32-port Fibre Channel line cards
D. two Cisco MDS 9509 Multilayer Directors with one in each data center, each MDS 9509 with two 16-port Fibre Channel line cards and three 32-port Fibre Channel line cards
Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 180
What technology minimizes the potential for service interruption on SAN extension
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links?
A. FCIP
B. VRRP
C. VSANs and IVR
D. Port Channeling
Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 181
A customer has 12 hosts, each capable of a maximum burst I/O rate of 75 MBps. The customer wants to connect these hosts to the fabric with a 32-port line card. For optimal performance what is the maximum number of hosts that should be connected to any four-port, host-optimized quad?
A. one
B. two
C. three
D. four
Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 182
A customer has the following application and peak-bandwidth requirements:Four database servers: 50 MBps eachFour exchange servers: 30 MBps each20 midrange development servers: 20 MBps eachWhich dual-fabric designs would best meet the needs of this price-sensitive customer while allowing for future SAN extension capability?
A. two Cisco MDS 9216i Multilayer Fabric Switches, each with an IPS-8 module
B. two Cisco MDS 9216A Multilayer Fabric Switches, each with an SSM module
C. two Cisco MDS 9216i Multilayer Fabric Switches, each with a 16-port FC module
D. two Cisco MDS 9216A Multilayer Fabric Switches, each with a 32-port FC module
Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 183
Which two design criteria require VLANs in a proposed solution? (Choose two)
Actualtests.com – The Power of Knowing 642-355
A. security between departments
B. segmenting collision domains
C. segmenting broadcast domains
D. video steaming on the LAN
E. limited budget of the corporation
F. use of multivendor equipment
Correct Answer: AC Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 184
Which statement describes IPv6 address route summarization?
A. IPv6 address have to converted to IPv4 address to be summarized
B. Classless Inter Domain Routing (CIDR) for IPv6 automatically performs route summarization
C. IPv6 addresses cannot use route summarization
D. IPv6 address have built in route summarization based on Top Level Aggregators, Next Level Aggregators and Site Level Aggregators.
E. The routers in the IPv6 network use proprietary protocols to optimize summarization based on the size of their routing tables.
Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 185
A converged voice and data network is designed to carry voice calls on-net as close a possible to the destination to reduce long distance charges. What are two reasons that a VoIP call could go off earlier than designed? (Choose two)
A. The local voice gateway detects lack of bandwidth.
B. The destination routing is not configured on both local and remote gateways.
C. The local call manager server is too busy to process the call.
D. The telephone user dials access code.
Correct Answer: AD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 186
A manufacturing company has decided to add a website to enhance sales. The web servers in the E-Commerce module must be accessible without compromising network security. Which two design recommendations can be made to meet their requirements? (Choose two)
Actualtests.com – The Power of Knowing 642-355
A. Use intrusion detection on the E-Commerce server farm
B. Limit the number of incoming connections to the module
C. Place E-Commerce servers and application servers on isolated LANs (DMZs)
D. Move the E-Commerce servers to the WAN module to provide tight security.
E. Use private and public key encryption
Correct Answer: AC Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 187
A global corporation has 2,000,000+ host and 10,000+ routers in their internal network. They also have connectivity to the Internet and do high volumes of traffic with their business partners and the public at large. They have decided to start using IPv6. Which statement best describes a flexible IPv6 strategy for this corporation?
A. IPv6 hosts and IPv6 routers
B. dual stack hosts and dual stack routers
C. dual stack hosts and IPv4 routers
D. IPv4 hosts and IPv6 routers
Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 188
A network that is running Voice over Frame Relay (VoFR) is experiencing delay and delay variation due to sterilization of packets of varying size. This condition is causing voice quality problems. Which solution can be added to the network at the sending end to reduce these problems?
A. dejetter buffers
B. hardware digital signal processors
C. link fragmentation and interleaving
D. coding algorithm
Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 189
An established network is experience DoS attacks against a specific server in E-Commerce module. The operating system on the server has been upgraded and patched and all unnccded services have been tuned off, but the attacks are
Actualtests.com – The Power of Knowing 642-355
continuing. What action should be recommended to reduce these attacks?
A. Block all UDP traffic to the affected server by using ACLs at the firewall.
B. Add more servers running the same application as the affected server.
C. Block all TCP traffic to the affected server by using ACLs at the firewall.
D. Limit the correction rate to the affected server at the firewall.
Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 190
Very large organizations hasreceived its IPv6 address range from their Internet Service Provider and intend to only use IPv6 address internally. They will access the Internet through port address translation (PAT). What is required for their Domain Name Servers, DNS?
A. They no longer need DNS servers
B. Their DNS servers need to support both IPv4 and IPv6 addresses
C. Their DNS servers need to support only IPv6 addresses
D. Their DNS servers need to support only IPv4 addresses
E. They need additional DNS servers in their network just for IPv6 addresses
F. There are no changes required to their DNS servers
Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 191
RST Corporation is planning to upgrade its current network. The chief technology officer (CTO) has supplied a topology diagram and an IP addressing scheme of the current network during an interview. The
company has been growing at about twenty percent per year and it has been difficult to maintain customer
support at a satisfactory level. The RST board has met and directed the CTO to look into network
improvements.
Which two items are most relevant in documenting RST’s business requirements?
A. improved customer support
B. existing network topologies
C. IP addresses assigned by the ISP
D. projected growth
E. frequency of board meetings
Correct Answer: AD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Actualtests.com – The Power of Knowing 642-355
QUESTION 192
In Cisco VoIP implementation what is used on a router to associate physical voice ports with phone numbers?
A. automatically route selections
B. translation patterns
C. IP telephony
D. dial neers
Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 193
What is the default encapsulation for synchronous serial interfaces on Cisco routers?
A. ATM
B. HDLC
C. PPTP
D. Frame Relay
E. GRE
Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 194
How does Roles Based Access Control (RBAC) enhance manageability in an environment with VSANs?
A. limit operator errors by isolating user management domains within a large physical infrastructure
B. specifies port membership to a specific VSAN
C. configures security options for host ports that are assigned to a VSAN
D. configures VSAN membership for specific trunk ports
Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 195
What is the impact of IPv6 on the BGP protocol?
Actualtests.com – The Power of Knowing 642-355
A. There is a new version of BGP for IPv6
B. Host converts BGP to IS-IS for IPv6
C. Host converts BGP to IS-IS for IPv6
D. There is no change for BGP between Ipv4 and IPv6
E. BGP cannot be used with IPv6
Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
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QUESTION 116
Match the corresponding terms and OSI layer.(Not all options are used.) 1.bits 2.packets 3.UDP 4.IP addresses 5.segments 6.MAC addresses 7.windowing 8.routing 9.switching
A. Network Layer II.Transprot Layer
B. I(2,4,9),II(5,7,3)
C. I(1,4,9),II(5,3,7)
D. I(1,4,8),II(2,7,3)
E. I(2,4,8),II(5,7,3)
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 117
Three of the following are types of flow control. Which are them? (Choose three.)
A. windowing
B. buffering
C. cut-through
D. congestion avoidance
Correct Answer: ABD
QUESTION 118
The following exhibit displays every device attached to the network. How many collision domains are shown in this network?
A. 3
B. 6
C. 9
D. 15
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 119
What do you think is the data structure that is described in the graphic?
A. TCP segment
B. FDDI frame
C. Ethernet frame
D. Token Ring frame
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 120
For the following Layer 4 protocols, which one is used for a Telnet connection?
A. UDP
B. TCP
C. ICMP
D. DNS
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 121
Which option is correct about the relationship between the definition and the term? Not all definitions will be used.
1.a protocol that converts human-readable names into machine-readable addresses 2.used to assign IP addresses automatically and set parameters such as subnet mask and default gateway 3.a protocol for using HTTP or HTTPS to exchange XML-based messages over computer networks 4.a connectionless service that uses UDP to transfer files between systems 5.a protocol used to monitor and manage network devices
6.a reliable. Connection-oriented service that uses TCP to transfer files between systems
A. SNMP II.FTP III.TFTP IV.DNS
B. DHCP
C. I-5;II-6;III-4;IV-1;V-2
D. I-5;II-6;III-1;IV-2;V-4
E. I-6;II-5;III-4;IV-1;V-2
F. I-6;II-5;III-4;IV-2;V-1
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 122
Look at the following exhibit. To interconnect the devices, which types of cables are needed? (Choose three.)
A. rollover cable
B. V.35 cable
C. crossover cable
D. straight-through cable
Correct Answer: ACD
QUESTION 123
Look at the following exhibit. You are a network administrator for certways. You have added Host A to the network. A certain kind of cable should be used between P4S-S2 and host A. Which is it?
A. console cable
B. crossover cable
C. rollover cable
D. straight-through cable
Correct Answer: D QUESTION 124
Look at the following exhibit. To make the following connections ,what types of cables are recommended?
A. A-crossover B-straight-through C-crossover D-straight-through E-crossover
B. A-rollover B-straight-through C-straight-through D-rollover E-crossover
C. A-straight-through B-straight-through C-rollover D-straight-through E-straight-through
D. A-crossover B-straight-through C-rollover D-straight-through E-straight-through
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 125
From which of the following does a small network get its IP network address?
A. Internet Service Provider (ISP)
B. Internet Architecture Board (IAB)
C. Internet Domain Name Registry (IDNR)
D. Internet Assigned Numbers Authority (IANA)
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 126
You are a network administrator for certways. By using the Ethernet interfaces as shown in the graphic,
you connect PC hosts certwaysA and certwaysB directly. You ping certwaysB from
certwaysA, and fails. You are required to enable the connectivity between the two hosts. What can be
done? (Choose two.)
A. A default gateway needs to be set on each host.
B. The subnet masks should be set to 255.255.255.0.
C. A crossover cable should be used in place of the straight-through cable.
D. The hosts must be reconfigured to use private IP addresses for direct connections of this type.
Correct Answer: BC
QUESTION 127
Part of the certways network is shown below:
Please study the exhibit shown above carefully, how many collision domains are shown
A. three
B. two
C. four
D. one
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 128
What is a necessary to allow host A to ping host B according to the exhibit?
A. a straight-through cable connecting the switches
B. a crossover cable connecting the switches
C. a router connected to the switches with straight-through cables
D. a CSU/DSU connected to the switches with straight-through cables
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 129
You work as a network technician for the P4S company. The displayed wire scheme is terminated at each end with an RJ-45 connector. Which type of cables does the wire diagram represent?
A. a rollover cable
B. an Ethernet straight-through cable
C. a serial crossover cable
D. an Ethernet crossover cable
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 130
On the basis of the exhibit below. When packets travel from Sara to Bill, which three devices will determine a forwarding path by using the destination MAC address of the packet? (Choose three.)
A. P4S-S1
B. P4S-S2
C. P4S-R2
D. P4S-S3
Correct Answer: ABD
QUESTION 131
Study the exhibit carefully. P4S-Host A is forwarding a packet to P4S-Host B for the first time. Which destination MAC address will be used by P4S-Host A in the ARP request?
A. 255.255.255.255
B. 00-17-94-61-18-b0
C. 00-19-d3-2d-c3-b2
D. ff-ff-ff-ff-ff-ff
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 132
Refer to the following exhibit, Host A should communicate with the email server. Which address will be put in the destination address field of the frame when it leaves Host A?
A. the MAC address of Host A
B. the MAC address of P4S-S1
C. the MAC address of E0 of P4S-R
D. the MAC address of E1 of P4S-R
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 133
The following exhibit shows a planned network. Which three descriptions are true about the areas and devices in the network plan? (Choose three.)
A. Network Device A is a switch.
B. Area 2 contains a Layer 2 device
C. Network Device B is a hub.
D. Area 1 contains a Layer 2 device.
Correct Answer: ACD
QUESTION 134
Refer to the graphic. Workstation A in the Sales location is communicating with the server in the Production location. What will be the source MAC address of the frames received by workstation A from the server?
A. the MAC address of router interface e0
B. the MAC address of the server network interface
C. the MAC address of host A D. the MAC address of router interface e1
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 135
All devices will be connected through Ethernet according to the exhibit from labeled A to E . Which three
device-to-device configurations most likely require the use of a crossover connection?
(Choose three.)
A. exhibit A
B. exhibit B
C. exhibit C
D. exhibit D
E. exhibit E
Correct Answer: ADE
QUESTION 136
Your company has just installed the mail server and P4S-SW2. UDP packets are not permitted outbound on the Fa0/1 router interface due to security reasons. Bob is now examining the new installation at his workstation and can’t establish SMTP communication to the mail server. Which item is the reason for lack of communication between Bob’s workstation and the mail server?
A. The crossover cable should be a straight-through cable.
B. The IP addresses are all on the same network. No router is required.
C. UDP is blocked coming out of the Fa0/1 interface on the router.
D. The server should be directly connected to the router.
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 137
Which two statements best describe the interface configuration according to the exhibit? (Choose two.)
A. The encapsulation in use on this interface is PPP.
B. This interface is connected to a LAN.
C. The address mask of this interface is 255.255.255.0.
D. The default serial line encapsulation is in use on this interface.
Correct Answer: AC
QUESTION 138
Refer to the exhibit. What could be possible causes for the “Serial0/0 is down” interface status? (Choose two.)
A. A Layer 1 problem exists.
B. A protocol mismatch exists.
C. The bandwidth is set too low.
D. An incorrect cable is being used.
Correct Answer: AD
QUESTION 139
Which two statements best describe ICMP packets? (Choose two.)
A. They acknowledge receipt of TCP segments.
B. They guarantee datagram delivery.
C. They can provide hosts with information about network problems.
D. They are encapsulated within IP datagrams.
Correct Answer: CD
QUESTION 140
The certways network topology exhibit is shown below:
Please study the exhibit carefully. A technician is troubleshooting a host connectivity problem. The host is
unable to ping a server connected to Switch certwaysA. Based on the result of the testing, what could be
the problem?
A. A remote physical layer problem exists.
B. The host NIC is not functioning.
C. TCP/IP has not been correctly installed on the host.
D. A local physical layer problem exists.
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 141
Examine the following options carefully, which line from the output of the show ip interface command indicates that there is a Layer 1 problem?
A. Serial0/1 is up, line protocol is up
B. Serial0/1 is up, line protocol is down
C. Serial0/1 is down, line protocol is down
D. Serial0/1 is administratively down, line protocol is down
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 142
What does flow control accomplish?
A. to ensure data is retransmitted if an acknowledgment is not received
B. to reassemble segments in the correct order at the destination device
C. to provide a means for the receiver to govern the amount of data sent by the sender
D. to regulate the size of each segment
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 143
For the following transport layer protocols, which one is most suitable for the transport of VoIP data?
A. HTTP
B. UDP
C. RIP
D. OSPF
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 144
Which three statements correctly describe the operation of a full-duplex Ethernet network? (Choose three.)
A. There are no collisions in full-duplex mode.
B. A dedicated switch port is required for each full-duplex node.
C. Ethernet hub ports are preconfigured for full-duplex mode.
D. The host network card and the switch port must be capable of operating in full-duplex mode.
Correct Answer: ABD
QUESTION 145
According to the following exhibit. Which two output fields will be helpful when you determine if a broadcast storm has occurred? (Choose two.)
A. collisions
B. no buffer
C. dribble condition
D. ignored
Correct Answer: BD
QUESTION 146
You are a network technician at P4S, study the exhibit carefully. The ports displayed are the only active ports on the P4S-S. The MAC address table is displayed in its entirety. The Ethernet frame presented reaches the P4S-S. When receiving this frame, which two operations will the P4S-S perform? (Choose two.)
A. The MAC address of 0000.00aa.aaaa will be added to the MAC address table.
B. The MAC address of 0000.00dd.dddd will be added to the MAC address table.
C. The frame will be forwarded out port fa0/3 only.
D. The frame will be forwarded out fa0/1, fa0/2, and fa0/3.
Correct Answer: AD
QUESTION 147
Which two characteristics belong to Telnet? (Choose two.)
A. It sends data in clear text format.
B. It is no longer supported on Cisco network devices.
C. It is more secure than SSH.
D. It requires that the destination device be configured to support Telnet connections.
Correct Answer: AD
QUESTION 148
Which error condition could be removed at once when troubleshooting a LAN interface operating in full duplex mode?
A. dribble condition
B. giants
C. collisions
D. no buffers
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 149
Refer to the exhibit.
P4S-PCA is sending packets to the FTP server. Consider the packets as they leave P4S-RA interface
Fa0/0 forwards P4S-RB.Drag the correct frame and packet address to their place in the table.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Correct Answer:
QUESTION 150
Choose from the following two statements that describe the operation of the CSMA/CD access method. (Choose two.)
A. In a CSMA/CD collision domain, stations must wait until the media is not in use before transmitting.
B. In a CSMA/CD collision domain, multiple stations can successfully transmit data simultaneously.
C. The use of hubs to enlarge the size of collision domains is one way to improve the operation of the CSMA/CD access method.
D. After a collision, all stations run a random backoff algorithm. When the backoff delay period has expired, all stations have equal priority to transmit data.
Correct Answer: AD
QUESTION 151
Topic – Implement a small switched network.
Select the appropriate media, cables, ports, and connectors to connect switches to other network devices and hosts Explain the technology and media access control method for Ethernet technologies Explain network segmentation and basic traffic management concepts Explain the operation of Cisco switches and basic switching concepts Perform, save and verify initial switch configuration tasks including remote access management Verify network status and switch operation using basic utilities (including: ping, traceroute,telnet,SSH,arp, ipconfig), SHOW DEBUG commands Implement and verify basic security for a switch (port security, deactivate ports) Identify, prescribe, and resolve common switched network media issues, configuration issues, autonegotiation, and switch hardware failures
A.
B.
C.
D.
Correct Answer:
QUESTION 152
You are a network administrator for the P4S company, study the exhibit carefully. Your company has just configured a Catalyst 2950 switch for remote management by pasting into the console the configuration commands displayed in the exhibit. However, a Telnet session is not able to be successfully established from a remote host. How to fix this problem?
A. Change the fifth line to ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 192.168.17.1.
B. Change the first line to interface fastethernet 0/1.
C. Change the fifth line to ip default-gateway 192.168.17.241.
D. Change the sixth line to line con 0.
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 153
You are a network administrator at P4S, study the exhibit below carefully. You substitute the NIC in a desktop PC with a new NIC. The NIC in the PC configuration is set to “100 Mb Half.” Now the PC has intermittent connectivity and loss of communication so you start troubleshooting on the switch. According to the switch output displayed, which is the most likely cause of the problem?
A. Fast Ethernet is incompatible with a megabit NIC.
B. The counters were not cleared after the hardware was replaced.
C. The switch is set to full-duplex.
D. Input flow control is off.
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 154
The following graphic displays the topology and switching table. Host P4S-B forwards a frame to Host P4S-C. What would the switch do with the frame?
A. send an ARP request for Host P4S-C
B. send the frame out all ports except port 0/2
C. send an ICMP Host Unreachable message to Host P4S-B
D. record the destination MAC address in the switching table and send the frame directly to Host P4S-C
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 155
You work as a network technician for P4S Ltd. Study the exhibit carefully. After the power-on self test
(POST), the system LED of a Cisco 2950 switch becomes amber.
What is the status of the
switch?
A. The switch has experienced an internal problem but data can still be forwarded at a slower rate.
B. The POST was successful.
C. POST failed and there is a problem that prevents the operating system of the switch from being loaded.
D. The switch passed POST, but all the switch ports are busy.
Correct Answer: C QUESTION 156
As it is shown in the following exhibit, P4S-SWA receives the frame with the addressing. Based on the command output shown, how will P4S-SWA handle this frame?
A. It will drop the frame.
B. It will flood the frame out all ports.
C. It will forward the frame out port Fa0/3 only.
D. It will flood the frame out all ports except Fa0/3.
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 157
Which of the following command will set the default gateway to 192.168.12.1 on a Cisco switch?
A. P4S-SW(config)# ip route-default 192.168.12.1
B. P4S-SW(config)# ip route 192.168.12.1 0.0.0.0
C. P4S-SW(config)# ip default-gateway 192.168.12.1
D. P4S-SW(config)# ip default-network 192.168.12.1
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 158
Study the exhibit carefully. Two 2950 switches use a straight-through cable to connect through ports fa0/24. What can be concluded about this network according to the output provided in the exhibit and the information that is given?
A. An IP address and default gateway must be configured on each switch.
B. The switches do not share the same VTP domain.
C. Port fa0/24 must be configured as a trunk in order for the switches to share neighbor information.
D. The switches are cabled incorrectly.
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 159
Refer to the exhibit. The two connected ports on the P4S-S are not turning orange or green. What would be the most effective steps to troubleshoot this physical layer problem? (Choose three.)
A. Ensure that the Ethernet encapsulations match on the interconnected P4S-R and P4S-S ports.
B. Ensure that cables A and B are straight-through cables.
C. Reseat all cables.
D. Ensure the P4S-S has power.
Correct Answer: BCD
QUESTION 160
What does it indicate when the system LED is amber on a Cisco Catalyst 2950 series switch?
A. The system is not powered up.
B. The system is malfunctioning.
C. The system is forwarding traffic.
D. The system is powered up and operational.
Correct Answer: B QUESTION 161
P4S-SWA receives the frame with the addressing displayed in the exhibit. How will P4S-SWA deal with this frame according to the command output shown in the exhibit?
A. It will flood the frame out all ports.
B. It will forward the frame out port Fa0/6 only.
C. It will flood the frame out all ports except Fa0/3.
D. It will forward the frame out port Fa0/3 only.
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 162
The following output was displayed on a certways device:
Study the exhibit above. Switch-certways1 needs to send data to host with a MAC address of
00b0.d056.efa4. What will Switch-certways1 do with this data?
A. certways1 will send an ARP request out all its ports except the port from which the data originated.
B. certways1 will flood the data out all of its ports except the port from which the data originated.
C. certways1 will drop the data because it does not have an entry for that MAC address.
D. None of the above
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 163
The following graphic displays the topology and MAC address table. Host P4S-A sends a data frame to host P4S-D. When receiving the frame from host P4S-A, what will the P4S-SWA do?
A. The P4S-SWA will add the source address and port to the MAC address table and forward the frame to host P4S-D.
B. The P4S-SWA will flood the frame out of all ports except for port Fa0/3.
C. The P4S-SWA will add the destination address of the frame to the MAC address table and forward the frame to host P4S-D.
D. The P4S-SWA will discard the frame and send an error message back to host P4S-A.
Correct Answer: A QUESTION 164
Examine the following options, which two are effects on network performance of configuring a switch to store an entire frame before forwarding it to the destination? (Choose two.)
A. increase in switch operating speed
B. increased latency
C. filtering of all frame errors
D. filtering of collision fragments only
Correct Answer: BC
QUESTION 165
The part of certways network is shown below:
According to the diagram, which of the following is true about the internetwork?
A. certways2 is the root bridge.
B. Spanning Tree is not running.
C. No collisions can occur in traffic between certwaysB and certwaysC.
D. certwaysD and certways Server 1 are in the same network.
E. If Fa0/0 is down on certways-R, Pass4usreA cannot access certways Server 1
Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 166
Topic- Implement an IP addressing scheme and IP services to meet network requirements for a small branch office.
Describe the need and role of addressing in a network ” Create and apply an addressing scheme to a network Assign and verify valid IP addresses to hosts, servers, and networking devices in a LAN environment Explain the basic uses and operation of NAT in a small network connecting to one ISP Describe and verify DNS operation Describe the operation and benefits of using private and public IP addressing Enable NAT for a small network with a single ISP and connection using SDM and verify operation using CLI and ping Configure, verify and troubleshoot DHCP and DNS operation on a router.(including: CLI/SDM) Implement static and dynamic addressing services for hosts in a LAN environment Identify and correct IP addressing issues
A.
B.
C.
D.
Correct Answer:
QUESTION 167
Match the corresponding command sequence and configure an IP address on a serial interface.(Not all options are used) 1.P4S# interface s0/0 2.P4S(config)# interface s0/0 3.P4S(config-if)# no shutdown 4.P4S(config-if)# enable interface 5.P4S(config)# ip address 172.16.20.21 255.255.255.0 6.P4S(config-if)# ip address 10.8.5.255 255.255.252.0 7.P4S(config-if)# ip address 198.18.2.63 255.255.255.224 8.P4S(config-if)# description T1 to WAN 9.P4S(config)# banner motd! T1 to WAN! 10.P4S# configure terminal
A. enable the interface II.label the interface III.enter global configuration mode IV.enter interface configuration mode
B. configure the interface IP address
C. I-3,II-8,III-10,IV-2,V-6
D. I-3,II-8,III-10,IV-1,V-6
E. I-3,II-9,III-10,IV-2,V-5
F. I-3,II-9,III-10,IV-1,V-5
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 168
Look at the following exhibit. The diagram is provided by the certways network support staff as a recommended configuration for the first phase of a four-phase network expansion project. The entire network expansion will have over 1000 users on 14 network segments. The following IP address space has been allocated for this network:
192.168.1.1 through 192.168.5.255
192.168.100.1 through 198.168.100.255
There are three problems with this design. What are them? (Choose three.)
A. The router-to-router connection is wasting address space.
B. AREA 2 could use a mask of /25 to conserve IP address space.
C. The AREA 1 IP address space is inadequate for the number of users.
D. The AREA 3 IP address space is inadequate for the number of users.
Correct Answer: ABC
QUESTION 169
You are a network technician at P4S. Study the exhibit above carefully, as the first step in verifying a local host configuration, you perform the ipconfig/all command on a computer. Answer the following questions by using the results of the command. Which destination addresses does not need the use of the default gateway for a packet from this local host?
A. 10.69.2.88
B. 10.4.8.2
C. 10.5.2.27
D. 172.16.236.4
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 170
Refer to the exhibit. Host P4S-A needs to send data to Host P4S-B. Which Layer 2 and Layer 3 destination addresses will be used to send the data from Host P4S-A to Host P4S-B?
A. 192.168.24.1 and 0007.0e56.ab2e
B. 192.168.60.5 and 0007.0e56.ab2e
C. 192.168.24.2 and 0007.0e84.acef
D. 192.168.60.5 and 0011.43da.2c98
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 171
You are a network technician at P4S. Study the exhibit above carefully, as the first step in verifying a local host configuration, you perform the ipconfig/all command on a computer. Answer the following questions by using the results of the command. Which IP address represents the first server that this computer is trying to contact to resolve an Internet web site URL to an IP address?
A. 10.4.8.1
B. 10.69.2.87
C. 172.16.3.2
D. 172.16.236.1
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 172
You are a network technician at P4S. Study the exhibit above carefully, as the first step in verifying a local host configuration, you perform the ipconfig/all command on a computer. Answer the following questions by using the results of the command. You can successfully ping to the IP address of the primary DNS server configured on the computer. What can you determine concerning the network?
A. The names of all of the routers in the path can be resolved by the configured DNS servers
B. The DNS server is able to resolve domain names to IP addresses.
C. The router with the address 172.16.3.2 has the correct route to the 10.0.0.0 network
D. The router with the address 172.16.236.1 has a route it can use to reach network of the DNS server
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 173
What can be drawn about traffic on the router interface from the statement “The only UDP port allowed on this router interface is 53.” issued by the network manager?
A. DNS traffic is allowed.
B. Telnet traffic is allowed.
C. RIP traffic is allowed.
D. SMTP traffic is allowed.
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 174
Please study the exhibit, and answer the following question. Choose from the following the subnet broadcast address of the LAN connected to P4S-R.
A. 192.168.200.15
B. 192.168.200.31
C. 192.168.200.63
D. 192.168.200.127
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 175
On the LAN to which P4S-R is connected, how many hosts can have IP addresses (Including the address on the P4S-R FastEthernet interface)?
A. 6
B. 14
C. 62
D. 126
Correct Answer: B QUESTION 176
Choose from the following two statements that describe the IP address 10.16.3.65/23? (Choose two.)
A. The subnet address is 10.16.3.0 255.255.254.0.
B. The broadcast address of the subnet is 10.16.3.255 255.255.254.0.
C. The lowest host address in the subnet is 10.16.2.1 255.255.254.0.
D. The last valid host address in the subnet is 10.16.2.254 255.255.254.0
Correct Answer: BC QUESTION 177
According to the following exhibit. A customer is not able to reach any web sites on the Internet, but others in the department have no problem. What most likely causes this problem?
A. A DHCP server address is not reachable by the PC.
B. IP routing is not enabled.
C. A DNS server address is not reachable by the PC.
D. NAT has not been configured on the router that connects to the Internet.
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 178
Look at the following exhibit. P4SA should be able to telnet to switch P4S-SW by using router P4S-R for management purposes. To configure this connection successfully, what should be configured?
A. VLAN 1 on P4S-R
B. IP routing on P4S-SW
C. default gateway on P4S-SW
D. cross-over cable connecting P4S-SW and P4S-R
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 179
Look at the following exhibit. The network is designed to provide the most efficient use of IP address space in a network expansion. Each circle defines a network segment and the number of users required on that segment. An IP subnetwork number and default gateway address are displayed for each segment. There are three problems with the network design. What are the problems? (Choose three.)
A. Network 10.1.2.0/25 requires more user address space.
B. Network 10.1.3.128/25 requires more user address space.
C. Interface fa0/3 has an incorrect IP address.
D. Interface fa0/1 has an invalid IP address for the subnet on which it resides.
Correct Answer: ACD
QUESTION 180
Two of the following describe private IP addresses. Which are them? (Choose two.)
A. a scheme to conserve public addresses
B. addresses that can be routed through the public Internet
C. addresses that cannot be routed through the public Internet
D. addresses chosen by a company to communicate with the Internet
Correct Answer: AC
QUESTION 181
You are a network technician at P4S. Study the exhibit above carefully, as the first step in verifying a local host configuration, you perform the ipconfig/all command on a computer. Answer the following questions by using the results of the command. Which two things can you determine by successfully pinging from this computer to the IP address 172.16.236.1? (Choose two)
A. The network card on the computer is functioning correctly.
B. The correct default gateway IP address is configured on the computer.
C. The default static route on the gateway router is correctly configured.
D. The device with the IP address 172.16.236.1 is reachable over the network.
Correct Answer: AD
QUESTION 182
Which of the following is the subnet address of 172.16.159.159/22?
A. 172.16.0.0
B. 172.16.156.0
C. 172.16.128.0
D. 172.16.159.0
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 183
Tom works as a network technician for the P4S company. He is tasked to design a small network with redundancy according to the exhibit below which presents this design with all hosts configured in the same VLAN. What conclusions could be drawn from this design?
A. The connection between switches should be a trunk.
B. This design will function as intended.
C. The router will not accept the addressing scheme.
D. The router interfaces must be encapsulated with the 802.1Q protocol.
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 184
The P4S company has required a 300-workstation expansion of its network. These workstations will be
installed in a single broadcast domain. However, each workstation needs to have its own
collision domain. The expansion will be as cost-effective as possible while still satisfying the requirements.
Which three options can correctly fulfill the request? (Choose three).
A. one IP subnet with a mask of 255.255.254.0
B. seven 48-port hubs
C. seven 48-port switches
D. one router interface
Correct Answer: ACD
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QUESTION 1
The following message is displayed in the System Notification Widget on the Dashboard:
Which script should be run to help determine the cause of the dropped events?
A. /opt/qradar/support/dumpGvData.sh
B. /opt/qradar/support/dumpDSMInfo.sh
C. /opt/qradar/support/cleanAssetModel.sh
D. /opt/qradar/support/findExpensiveCustomRules.sh
Correct Answer: D QUESTION 2
What is used to collect netflow and jflow traffic in a QRadar Distributed Deployment?
A. QRadar 3105 Console
B. QRadar 1705 Processor
C. QRadar 1605 Processor
D. QRadar 700 Risk Manager
Correct Answer: A QUESTION 3
What should the format of a CSV file be while importing assets on the QRadar console?
A. ip,portweight,description
B. ip,name,weightmagnitude
C. ip.name.weight.description
D. ip.name.severity.description
Correct Answer: C QUESTION 4
Which option needs to be specified in the syslinux configuration file to reinstall an IBM QRadar appliance via serial port from an USB flash-drive?
A. USB to serial
B. Default serial
C. Serial to USB
D. serial redirect
Correct Answer: B QUESTION 5
With a Data Deletion Policy of “When storage is required”, data will remain in storage until which scenario is reached?
A. If used disk space reaches 88% for records and 85% for payloads.
B. If used disk space reaches 85% for records and 88% for payloads.
C. If used disk space reaches 85% for records and 83% for payloads.
D. If used disk space reaches 83% for records and 85% for payloads.
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 6
Which two actions can be selected from the license drop-down in the system and license management screen when working with a new license? (Choose two.)
A. Apply license
B. Upload license
C. Allocate license to system
D. Allocate system to license
E. Register system to license
Correct Answer: AC
QUESTION 7
How frequently does the Automated Update Process run if Configuration files are updated on Primary and then Deploy Changes is not performed, and the updates are made on the Secondary host through an Automated Update Process?
A. Every 10 minutes
B. Every 15 minutes
C. Every 30 minutes
D. Every 60 minutes
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 8
What two are valid actions that a user can perform when monitoring offenses? (Choose two.)
A. Import offenses
B. Backup offenses
C. Restore offenses
D. Send email notifications
E. Hide or close an offense from any offense list
Correct Answer: BE
QUESTION 9
What is a valid QVM scan status?
A. Active
B. Paused
C. Scanning
D. Complete
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 10
Which NetFlow versions does QRadar SIEM support?
A. 1, 2, 3, and 4
B. 1, 4, 7, and 9
C. 1, 3, 5, and 9
D. 1, 5, 7, and 9
Correct Answer: D QUESTION 11
How do you view Raw Events on the Log Activity tab?
A. Select “Raw Events” from the View list box
B. Select “Raw Events” from the Actions list box
C. Select “Raw Events” from the Display list box
D. Select “Raw Events” from the Quick Searches list box
Correct Answer: C QUESTION 12
There is a requirement at the customer site to double the default QFlow Maximum Content Capture size. What would be the resulting packet size?
A. 64 bytes
B. 128 bytes
C. 256 bytes
D. 1024 bytes
Correct Answer: B QUESTION 13
What is the result when adding host definition building blocks to QRadar?
A. Creates Offenses
B. Reduces false positives
C. Makes searches run faster
D. Authorizes QRadar Services
Correct Answer: B QUESTION 14
What is used to collect netflow and jflow traffic in a QRadar Distributed Deployment?
A. QRadar 3124 Console
B. QRadar 1624 Processor
C. QRadar 1724 Processor
D. QRadar 700 Risk Manager
Correct Answer: A QUESTION 15
What will be restored when restoring event data or flow data for a particular period to a MH?
A. Only data sent to the console for that time period is restored to the MH.
B. Only event data or flow data for the MH being restored will be restored to that MH.
C. Only data that was accumulated for reports and searches will be restored to the MH.
D. All data for all MHs for a specific time period is restored to its respective hosts in the deployment.
Correct Answer: B QUESTION 16
Where do you save the “Login Message File” on the system when setting up a banner message for the authentication page?
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QUESTION 56
You have made a selection using a selection tool. You want to create a custom brush from the selection.
Which should you choose?
Options:
A. Edit > Preset Manager
B. Edit > Define Brush Preset
C. From the Brushes panel options menu, choose Save Brushes.
D. From the Brushes panel options menu, choose Special Effect Brushes.
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 57
While retouching your image you want to control the opacity of the tool. Which should you choose? Options:
A. Patch Tool
B. Clone Stamp Tool
C. Healing Brush Tool
D. Spot Healing Brush Tool
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 58
You want to remove a small imperfection in a photo. Which retouching tool automatically samples from
around the retouched area and matches the texture, lighting, and transparency of the sampled pixels to
the pixels being healed?
Options:
A. Patch tool
B. Clone Stamp tool
C. Healing Brush tool
D. Spot Healing Brush tool
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 59
You are retouching an image by using the Healing brush. You want the image of your current source point
to display only within your brush shape. Which should you choose in the Clone Source panel?
Options:
A. Show Overlay on, clipped off
B. Show Overlay off, clipped on
C. Show Overlay off, clipped off
D. Show Overlay on, clipped on
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 60
How should you set the transparency level for a particular point on a gradient? Options:
1.
2.
3.
4.
A. Apply the gradient to a new layer and set the opacity of the layer
B. Set the opacity in the Gradient tool options bar and then apply the gradient
C. In the Gradient Editor adjust the color stop below the gradient bar
D. In the Gradient Editor adjust the transparency stop above the gradient bar
Correct Answer: D QUESTION 61
You are creating a smooth color gradient. Which steps will allow you to select a color you have previously
defined as the starting color of the gradient?
Options:
A. Click A and display the Swatches panel.
B. Click B and click Load.
C. Click C, open the Swatches panel, and select a color.
D. Double-click C.
Correct Answer: C QUESTION 62
You want to apply a filter to an image layer and be able to adjust the filter at a later time. Before applying
the filter, what should you do to enable later editing of the filter?
Options:
A. Convert the layer to a Smart Object.
B. Add a Selective Color Adjustment layer.
C. Change the image mode to 16 Bits/Channel.
D. Add a Solid Color Fill layer and set the opacity to 0%.
Correct Answer: A QUESTION 63
You need to select an area of your image that is comprised of seven straight edges. Which tool should you
use?
Options:
A. Lasso tool
B. Magnetic Lasso tool
C. Polygonal Lasso tool
D. Rectangular Marquee tool
Correct Answer: C QUESTION 64
You want to quickly select an object that has complex edges and is set against a high-contrast
background. Which selection tool should you use?
Options:
A. Lasso tool
B. Magic Wand tool
C. Magnetic Lasso tool
D. Polygonal Lasso tool
Correct Answer: C QUESTION 65
You want to select an orange object in an image. You choose Select > Color Range and click the orange
object. However, there is another object that is exactly the same color in a different part of the image,
which you don’t want to select. Which method will select only the desired orange object without having to
leave the Color Range dialog box?
Options:
A. Select Localized Color Clusters and adjust the Range slider.
B. Select the Subtract from Sample eyedropper and click the unwanted object.
C. Decrease the value of the Fuzziness slider.
D. Select the Eyedropper and Option-click (Mac OS) or Alt-click (Windows) the unwanted object.
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 66
Which action loads a previously saved selection into an image? Options:
A. Drag the channel containing the selection you want to load onto the image area.
B. Alt-click (Windows) or Option-click (Mac OS) the channel containing the selection you want to load.
C. Ctrl-click (Windows) or Command-click (Mac OS) the channel containing the selection you want to load.
D. Drag the channel containing the selection over theicon at the bottom of the Channels panel.
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 67
You have saved a selection. Where should you view the saved selection? Options:
A. Layers panel
B. Paths panel
C. Masks panel
D. Channels panel
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 68
You have defined a text layer as text replacement variable. What should you do next? Options:
A. Define Data Sets
B. Create an action
C. Write a script
D. Create a droplet
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 69
You have created a selection using the elliptical marquee and want to increase its size to match a section
of your image while maintaining its proportions. Which should you choose?
Options:
A. Edit > Free Transform
B. Edit > Transform > Scale
C. Select > Modify > Border
D. Select > Transform Selection
Correct Answer: D QUESTION 70
You have selected some pixels. You want to sharpen the selection edge and remove fuzzy artifacts using
Refine Edge. Which option should you adjust?
Options:
A. Radius
B. Feather
C. Smooth
D. Contrast
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 71
Your selection edge has several areas with fine detail. You want to create a more exact selection
boundary around those areas by changing the size of the area around the selection edge. Which option
should you use first in the Refine Edge dialog box to make that adjustment?
Options:
A. Radius
B. Contrast
C. Smooth
D. Feather
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 72
Which option in the Refine Edge dialog box will sharpen the selection edge and remove fuzzy artifacts? Options:
A. Radius
B. Contrast
C. Smooth
D. Feather
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 73
You have made a selection of a group of pixels in your image. You want to copy these pixels to their own
layer. What should you do?
Options:
A. Click the New Layer button on the Layers panel
B. Click the New Layer Group button on the Layers panel
C. Choose Layer > New > Layer
D. Choose Layer > New > Layer via Copy
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 74
You are currently editing a Photoshop file with three layers and NO layer groups. You select the second layer and choose Layer > New Layer to create a new layer. Where will the new layer be placed? Options:
A. Above the selected layer
B. Below the selected layer
C. At the top of the existing layers
D. At the bottom of the existing layers
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 75
A document contains five layers of the same size, distributed unevenly from the left edge to the right edge of the image. They’re all selected in the Layers panel, and the Move tool is selected. How should you evenly distribute the layers along a horizontal axis?
Options:
A. Click the Arrange Documents button in the Options bar and then click the Tile All Horizontally button
B. Choose File > Automate > Fit Image
C. Choose Layer > Align > Horizontal Centers
D. Click the Distribute Horizontal Centers button on the Options bar
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 76
You have multiple layers in an image. You would like to align the top edge of each of the layers. Which
should you choose?
Options:
A. Edit > Auto-Align Layers
B. Edit > Auto-Blend Layers
C. Layer > Align > Top Edges
D. Layer > Align > Right Edges
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 77
Why would you create layer comps? Options:
A. To create multiple variations of a layout in a single Photoshop file
B. To apply attributes or masks to multiple layers simultaneously
C. To transform one or more layers of content without directly editing image pixels
D. To organize multiple layers by placing them under a single category that can be expanded and collapsed allowing you to reduce the number of visible layers
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 78
You’re preparing three alternative designs for a client. All three alternatives use the same five layers; the only difference is that they’re arranged differently on the canvas. You’d like to arrive at the client site, open the document, and immediately display each arrangement with a single click. How should you store the layer arrangements? Options:
A. Create a layer group for each design alternative.
B. Create a layer comp for each design alternative
C. Create a layer mask for each design alternative.
D. Create a history state for each design alternative.
Correct Answer: B QUESTION 79
You add a solid color layer above a grayscale image layer. Which blending mode should you apply to the
color layer to colorize the grayscale layer, using the hue and saturation of the color layer while preserving
the gray levels of the grayscale layer?
Options:
A. Dissolve
B. Difference
C. Exclusion
D. Color
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 80
You are applying multiple layer effects to different layers in your image. Which setting will ensure that all
effects that use a lighting angle will have the same lighting angle?
Options:.
A. Layer Knocks Out Drop Shadow
B. Use Global Light
C. Blend Mode set to Normal
D. Blend Mode set to Multiply
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 81
When using layer effects, which option ensures that the lighting angle is the same for all of the effects? Options:
A. Angle
B. Contour
C. Linear Light
D. Use Global Light
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 82
You want to edit an existing layer style. Which action will enable you to edit one or more effects defined by
the layer style?
Options:
A. Double-click an effect displayed below the layer name in the Layers panel.
B. Alt-click (Windows) or Option-click (Mac OS) an effect displayed below the layer name.
C. Alt-click (Windows) or Option-click (Mac OS) the layer name in the Layers panel.
D. Right-click or Control-click (Mac OS) the layer name in the Layers panel and select Layer Properties.
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 83
Which set of attributes can you save in the Styles panel? Options:
A. The stacking order and visibility of layers
B. 18-point Helvetica Bold type formatting
C. Drop Shadow settings combined with a Gradient Overlay effect
D. A calligraphic brush that uses stylus pressure to set brush size
Correct Answer: C QUESTION 84
Which command will allow you to convert a color image to black and white with the most control while NOT
directly editing image pixels?
Options:
A. Image > Mode > Grayscale
B. Image > Adjustments > Black & White
C. Image > Adjustments > Channel Mixer
D. Layer > New Adjustment Layer > Black & White
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 85
You want to convert a color image to black and white. Which technique will allow you to nondestructively
edit the mapping of the image’s color to grayscale values?
Options:
A. Image > Adjustments > Black & White
B. Layer > New Adjustment Layer > Black & White
C. Image > Mode > Grayscale
D. Image > Mode > Duotone
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 86
You want to hide a portion of a layer. You want to do this in an editable, non-destructive manner. Which
should you create?
Options:
A. a layer mask
B. a smart object
C. an alpha channel
D. a spot color channel
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 87
Explain the uses of masks and channels. How should you accurately preserve a selection for future
editing?
Options:
A. Create a work path
B. Create a new adjustment layer
C. Save the selection as a channel
D. Edit the selection in the Quick Mask Mode
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 88
You have applied a layer mask to a layer in your image. By painting in the mask with black you have
hidden a portion of the layer. You decide that you would like to reveal the hidden areas and hide the areas
that are currently visible. Which should you choose in the Masks panel?
Options:
A. Density
B. Feather
C. Color Range
D. Invert
Correct Answer: D QUESTION 89
Using the Masks panel, you have made a pixel mask active and you want to add to the mask, hiding an
additional area of the image. How should add to the mask?
Options:
A. In the Masks panel, increase the Feather.
B. In the Masks panel, decrease the Density.
C. Using the Brush tool, paint the areas that you want to hide with black.
D. Using the Brush tool, paint the areas that you want to hide with white.
Correct Answer: C QUESTION 90
You are currently viewing only the Blue channel of an RGB image. The Blue channel is also selected for
editing. What should you do to view only the Red channel and target it for editing?
Options:
A. Click the Red channel name.
B. Click the eye column next to the Red channel.
C. Alt-click (Windows) or Option-click (Mac OS) the eye column next to the Red channel.
D. Control-click (Windows) or Command-click (Mac OS) the Red channel name.
Correct Answer: A QUESTION 91
Which command should you choose to create a new channel? Options:
A. Select > Save Selection
B. Select > Transform Selection
C. Channel Panel Menu > Panel Options
D. Channel Panel Menu > Channel Options
Correct Answer: A QUESTION 92
When should you use a vector mask instead of a layer mask? Options:
A. When you want to create an adjustment layer based on sampled colors in an image.2
B. When you want to create a resolution-dependent mask based on a selection you made with the Magic Wand tool.
C. When you want to hide a portion of an image and be able to edit the hidden area at a later time using the Brush tool.
D. When you want to add a design element to your image that was created with a shape tool and has a clean, precise edge.
Correct Answer: D QUESTION 93
You want to vary the intensity of different areas of an adjustment layer. What should you do? Options:
A. Use a channel
B. Use the Quick Selection tool
C. Use a pixel mask
D. Use a vector mask
Correct Answer: C QUESTION 94
You want to use the content in a base layer to hide pixels in the layer above. Which should you create? Options:
A. a layer mask
B. a clipping mask
C. a vector mask
D. an alpha channel
Correct Answer: B QUESTION 95
You want to confine the effects of an adjustment layer to just one layer below it. Which should you
choose?
Options:.
A. Select > All Layers
B. Layer > Create Clipping Mask
C. Layers Panel Menu > Lock Layers
D. Layer > Layer Style > Blending Options
Correct Answer: B QUESTION 96
You have created and modified a Quick Mask. Which action will convert the mask to a selection and return
you to Standard Editing mode?
Options:
A. Click in the toolbox.
B. Click in the Layers panel.
C. Choose Select > Load Selection
D. Choose Layer > Layer Mask > Reveal All.
Correct Answer: A QUESTION 97
You want to create several variations of your Photoshop document where a text layer changes based on
data that you have defined. What should you do?
Options:
A. Create a variable
B. Create a layer comp
C. Create a layer style
D. Create a smart object
Correct Answer: A QUESTION 98
You are drawing a series of curved path segments with the Pen tool. How should you create a corner
anchor point?
Options:
A. Drag from the last anchor point while pressing Shift.
B. Drag from the last anchor point while pressing Alt (Windows) or Option (Mac OS).
C. Drag from the last anchor point while pressing Control (Windows) or Command (Mac OS).
D. Drag from the last anchor point while pressing Control + Shift (Windows) or Command + Shift (Mac OS).
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 99
What advantage does a shape created from a vector drawing tool have over a shape created with a
pixelbased tool?
Options:
A. The shape is resolution-dependent and can be easily modified using the Brush tool.
B. The shape is resolution-independent and able to maintain crisp and defined edges when resized.
C. The shape can more efficiently represent the subtle gradations of shades within a photograph.
D. None of above
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 100
Which tool gives you the option to create a Shape Layer? Options:
A. Pen tool
B. Brush tool
C. Horizontal Type tool
D. Rectangular Marquee tool
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 101
You have drawn a path using the Pen tool. You want to save this path before creating a new path. What
should you do?
Options:
A. Nothing. It is automatically saved in the Paths Panel.
B. Deselect the path.
C. In the Paths Panel, double click the name Work Path and give it a new name.
D. Click the Create new path button at the bottom of the Paths Panel.
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 102
You need to add a clipping path to an image. A path already exists in the Paths panel. Why is the Clipping Path command unavailable?
Options:
A. The path isn’t closed
B. The path is a Work Path
C. The path isn’t a Work Path
D. The path isn’t selected using the Path Selection tool
Correct Answer: B QUESTION 103
You have created a type layer. Currently the type is horizontal. How should you change it to vertical? Options:
A. Choose Edit > Transform > Rotate
B. Choose Edit > Transform > Flip Vertical
C. Click the Text Orientation button in the options bar
D. Use the Character panel to set the vertical scale to 50%
Correct Answer: C QUESTION 104
Which is an advantage of using Camera Raw to process digital camera raw files? Options:.
A. Camera Raw can modify the raw data in a camera raw image.
B. Camera Raw includes support for all digital camera models.
C. When you use Camera Raw to make adjustments to a camera raw image, the image’s original camera raw data is preserved.
D. Camera Raw allows you to change the settings in your camera.
Correct Answer: C QUESTION 105
You have converted a Camera Raw file to a Photoshop document. Which aspect of Camera Raw processing CANNOT be repeated after a Raw file is converted to a Photoshop document? Options:
A. You want to recover as much highlight data as possible
B. You want to correct chromatic aberration
C. You want to use the Vibrance feature
D. You want to apply a sharpening mask
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 106
You are working in Camera Raw. You would like to lighten the shadow areas of an image without
brightening the blacks. Which setting should you choose?
Options:
A. Exposure
B. Recovery
C. Fill Light
D. Brightness
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 107
What feature in Camera Raw should you use to aid in reconstructing some detail from areas where one or
two color channels are clipped to white?
Options:
A. Clarity
B. Vibrance
C. Exposure
D. Recovery
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 108
When saving images in Camera Raw, which file format allows you to turn the JPEG Preview on or off? Options:
A. TIFF
B. JPEG
C. PSD
D. DNG
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 109
You would like to download photos directly from your camera. In the process you would like to convert
them to DNG and rename them. Which should you choose?
Options:
A. In Bridge, choose File > Get Photos from Camera
B. In Bridge, choose Tools > Batch Rename
C. In Photoshop, choose Browse in Bridge
D. In Photoshop, choose Automate > Create Droplet
Correct Answer: A QUESTION 110
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