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QUESTION NO: 1
Which of these trends is the main driver toward smart grid technology?
A. increased supply, which requires the integration of distributed generation sources
B. reduced demand, which causes an increase in demand and peak load
C. compliance with regulations involving government funding and rules
D. increased carbon footprint
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 2
How many levels or types of priority can be assigned on a Cisco TAC case?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 4
D. 3
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 3
Which statement reflects the overall Cisco Smart Grid vision?
A. Sell the existing Cisco IP-based products from end-to-end of our utility customer’s smart grid deployments.
B. Design and architect an end-to-end communications infrastructure that is integrated with the power grid.
C. Integrate intelligent routing protocols into existing electrical grids.
D. Create a single infrastructure for unified communications from electrical generation plants to all primary and secondary substations.
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 4
Which of these is a grouping of elements that are part of the Cisco Substation Automation

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QUESTION 111
When synchronizing clusters, which of the following statements is NOT true?
A. User Authentication connections will be lost by the cluster
B. An SMTP resource connection using CVP will be maintained by the cluster
C. Only cluster members running on the same OS platform can be synchronized
D. In the case of a failover, accounting information on the failed member may be lost despite a properly working synchronization

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 112
Identify the correct steps performed by SmartUpdate to upgrade a remote Security Gateway. After selecting “Packages: add?from CD”, the:
A. Entire Contents of the CD are copied to the packages directory on the selected remote security gateway
B. Selected Package is copied to the packages directory on the selected remote security gateway
C. Selected package is copied to the package repository on the SmartCenter Server
D. Entire contents of the CD are copied to the Package Repository on the SmartCenter Server

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 113
What is the command in SecurePlatform Expert shell used to add routes without the use of sysconfig or the WebUI?
A. ip route
B. sysconfig route
C. ifroute
D. ifconfig

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 114
You want to upgrade a cluster with two members to VPN-1 NGX R65. The SmartCenter server and both
members are version VPN-1/Firewall-1 NG FP3, with the latest Hotfix.
What is the correct upgrade procedure?

1.
Change the version, in the General Properties of the gateway-cluster object

2.
Upgrade the SmartCenter Server and reboot after upgrade

3.
Run cpstop on one member, while leaving the other member running. Upgrade one member at a time and reboot after upgrade

4.
Reinstall the Security Policy:
A. 3,2,1,4
B. 2,3,1,4
C. 1,3,2,4
D. 2,4,3,1
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 115
Which utility allows you to configure the DHCP service on SecurePlatform from the command line?
A. Cpconfig
B. WebUI
C. Ifconfig
D. Sysconfig
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 116
In ClusterXL, which of the following processes are defined by default as critical devices?
A. fwd
B. assid
C. cpp
D. fwm

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 117
Which command line interface utility allows the administrator to verify the name and timestamp of the Security Policy currently installed on a firewall module?
A. fw stat
B. fw ctl pstat
C. cpstat fwd
D. fw ver

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 118
The command fw fetch causes the:
A. Security gateway to retrieve the compiled policy and inspect code from the SmartCenter Server and install it to the kernel
B. SmartCenter Server to retrieve the debug logs of the target security gateway
C. SmartCenter Server to retrieve the IP addresses of the target security gateway
D. Security Gateway to retrieve the user database information from the tables on the SmartCenter Server

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 119
Where is it necessary to configure historical records in SmartView Monitor to generate Express reports in Eventia Reporter?
A. In Eventia Reporter, under Standard > Custom
B. In Eventia Reporter, under Express> Network Activity
C. In SmartView Monitor, under Global Properties > Log and Masters
D. In SmartDashboard, the SmartView Monitor page in the VPN-1 Security Gateway object
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 120
SmartCenter Server
A. Purges the current log file and starts a new log file
B. Saves the current log file names the log file by data and time and starts a new log file
C. Prompts you to enter a filename, then saves the log file
D. Purges the current log and prompts you for the new log’s mode
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 121
Central License Management allows a Security Administrator to perform which of the following functions?
A. 2,3,4,5
B. Attach and/or delete only NGX Central Licenses to a remote module (not Local Licenses)
C. 2,5,6
D. Check for expired licenses
E. 1,2,5,6
F. Sort licenses and view license properties
G. Delete both NGX Local licenses and Central licenses from a remote module
H. 1,2,3,4,5
I. Add or remove a license to or from the license repository
J. Attach both NGX Central Local licenses to a remote module

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 122
Which of the following is NOT true for clientless VPN?
A. The Gateway accepts any encryption method that is proposed by the client and supported in the VPN
B. Secure communication is provided between clients and servers that support HTTP
C. User Authentication is supported
D. The Gateway can enforce the use of strong encryption

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 123
Control connections between the SmartCenter Server and the Gateway are not encryptd by the VPN Community. How are these connections secured?
A. They are not encrypted but are authenticated by the Gateway
B. They are secured by PPTP
C. They are encrypted and authenticated using SIC
D. They are not secured

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 124
Which VPN-1 NGX R65 component displays the number of packets accepted, rejected and dropped on a specific Security Gateway, in real time?
A. Eventia Analyzer
B. SmartView Status
C. SmartUpdate
D. SmartView Monitor
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 125
What happens when you select File > Export from the SmartView Tracker Menu?
A. Current logs are exported to a new *.log file
B. Exported log entries are deleted from fw.log
C. Logs in fw.log are exported to a file that can be opened by Microsoft Excel
D. Exported log entries are still viewable in SmartView Tracker
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 126
Where do you enable popup alerts for SmartDefense settings that have detected suspicious activity?
A. In SmartView Monitor, Select Tools > Alerts
B. In SmartView Tracker, Select tools > Custom commands
C. In SmartDashboard, select global properties > Log and Alert > Alert commands
D. In SmartDashboard, edit the gateway object, select SmartDefense > Alerts

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 127
Which of the following command is a CLI command for VPN-1 NGX R65?
A. fw tab -u
B. fw merge
C. fw shutdown
D. fwprint

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 128
Which SmartConsole component can administrators use to track remote administrative activities?
A. Eventia Reporter
B. SmartView Monitor
C. SmartView Tracker
D. The WebUI

Correct Answer: D

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QUESTION 111
In a VSX Gateway cluster, which of the following objects are available by default as installation targets for the Management Virtual System?
A. Internal Virtual Switch cluster object
B. Individual Virtual Systems for each Customer’s cluster member
C. Virtual System cluster of each Customer
D. External Virtual Router cluster object
E. External Virtual Switch cluster object

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 112
Which of the following VLAN membership types is considered explicit in its propagation?
A. Route-based
B. MAC address-based
C. Port-based
D. Session-based
E. State-based

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 113
When Virtual Systems are deployed in Bridge mode, they use ____________ to detect failures and forward traffic to another Virtual System in a cluster?
A. BPDU
B. MPLS
C. VRRP
D. OSPF
E. STP
Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 114
Which of the following can function as a Management Server for a VSX Gateway?
A. Provider-1 NGX: Multi -Log Monitor
B. SmartCenter Server
C. Check Point Integrity
D. Security Management Portal
E. VPN-1/FireWall-1 Small Office

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 115
Which of the following statements is TRUE concerning a VSX NGX deployment?
A. A separate management interface is required for a management network to access and control a VSX Gateway.
B. Multiple VSX Administrators can be configured with granular permission control in a SmartCenter Server management environment.
C. VSX Administrators can manage VSX Gateways and clusters through the Internet. No special management interface is required.
D. The functionality of VSX NGX is based on NG FP0.
E. All VSX virtual devices now share all functions of a standard NGX Security Gateway.

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 116
Consider the following scenario: You have two VSX Gateways configured for High Availability. Each has one dedicated management interface, one synchronization interface, one external interface, and two interfaces used to connect to protected customer networks. How many cluster interfaces do you have in this configuration?
A. Three; one Management Virtual System cluster, one External Virtual Router cluster, and one Virtual System cluster containing both customer Virtual Systems
B. Five; one VSX Gateway cluster, one Management Virtual System Cluster, one External Virtual Router cluster, and two Virtual System clusters
C. Two; one External Virtual Router cluster, and one cluster containing all Virtual Systems
D. One; one VSX cluster containing all components
E. Four; one Management Virtual System cluster, one External Virtual Router cluster, and two Virtual System clusters

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 117
Which of the following interfaces are configured by running sysconfig, during installation of a VSX Gateway in a High Availability environment?
A. Synchronization interface
B. Dedicated Customer interface
C. External interface
D. Management interface
E. Any configured VLAN

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 118
Which process uses an encrypted TCP connection to perform Full Synchronization of VSX Gateways in a cluster?
A. cpd
B. srd
C. fwd
D. synd
E. vpnd

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 119
Which of the following is NOT a type of physical interface seen in a VSX Gateway?
A. Warp
B. Internal
C. Dedicated management
D. External
E. Synchronization

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 120
Which of the following virtual devices will NOT fail over, if its interface fails in a VSX High Availability configuration?
A. Virtual System in Bridge mode
B. External Virtual Router
C. Internal Virtual Router
D. Virtual System with VLAN interfaces
E. Management Virtual System interface

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 121
Both SmartCenter Server and Provider-1 can be used for central configuration, management, and monitoring of multiple VSX Gateways and Virtual Systems. What criteria are used to decide which management model is used?
A. Licensing restrictions and costs, administrative requirements, and operation model
B. The size of the deployment and planned expansion, administrative requirements, and security model
C. The size of the deployment and planned expansion, end-user requirements, operation model, and licensing restrictions
D. The size of the deployment and planned expansion, administrative requirements, operation model, and licensing restrictions
E. The size of the deployment and planned expansion, end-user requirements, and security model

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 122
The External Virtual Router is associated with a dedicated interface. It is considered to be which type of interface?
A. Warp
B. Synchronization
C. Virtual
D. Physical
E. Symbolic

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 123
Security Policies enforced by Virtual Systems are applied to __________ connected to the Virtual IP Stack.
A. All interfaces
B. Virtual interfaces
C. Physical interfaces
D. Warp and virtual interfaces
E. Warp interfaces

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 124
What type of synchronization happens when a Gateway joins a VSX cluster?
A. Partial Synchronization
B. Alpha Synchronization
C. Delta Synchronization
D. Dynamic Synchronization
E. Full Synchronization

Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 125
If you want your customer’s Virtual Systems to give protected hosts access to and from the Internet, which of the following must be configured as a public IP address?
A. Default Gateway IP address of the Virtual Switch
B. Main IP of the customer’s Virtual System
C. Main IP of the Virtual Switch
D. Default Gateway IP address of the Management Virtual System
E. Main IP of the Management Virtual System

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 126
What is required to prevent loops in Virtual Systems in a Cluster XL environment?
A. BPDU
B. MPLS
C. STP
D. VRRP
E. OSPF

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 127
When configuring VSX Gateway clustering, the VSX Administrator assigns a unique __________ to each VSX Gateway in the cluster.
A. Synchronization interval
B. Management Server
C. Initial state (Active/Standby)
D. Name
E. Subnet mask

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 128
You are configuring source-based routing in a VSX Gateway deployment with both External and Internal Virtual Routers. Which of the following functions cannot be configured for the Virtual Systems?
A. Virtual System clustering
B. Anti-spoofing measures
C. Network Address Translation
D. Remote access VPNs
E. Intranet VPNs

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 129
A Virtual System in Bridge mode:
A. Routes traffic based on layer-3 information.
B. Forwards all traffic received from a switch.
C. Can participate in a VPN.
D. Can perform Network Address Translation.
E. Uses VRRP to manage failover.

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 130
TRUE or FALSE. A Virtual System in Bridge mode can enforce anti-spoofing definitions.
A. True, anti-spoofing must be manually defined in bridge mode.
B. True, as long as the Virtual System has more than two interfaces defined.
C. True, as long as Network Address Translation is performed.
D. True, anti-spoofing measures are defined automatically in Bridge mode.
E. False, anti-spoofing cannot be configured for Virtual Systems in Bridge mode.

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 131
Which of the following components controls the synchronization interface for each VSX Gateway?
A. External Virtual Router
B. Management Virtual System
C. Internal Virtual Router
D. VSX Management Server
E. Network Synchronization Server

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 132
Which of the following VSX Gateway components are unique to, and NOT shared by, each Virtual System?
A. VSX Policy Editor
B. Context Identification Module
C. VSX Inspection Module
D. VSX Management Server
E. Virtual Router
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 133
When configuring a new Virtual System for your VSX Gateway configuration, what should you do first?
A. Create a new Customer and CMA, to be used as the Virtual System’s Management Server.
B. Open the Admin CMA SmartDashboard, and create a new CMA object to be used as the Virtual System’s Management Server.
C. Add a new Virtual System to the Main Customer, so that the Admin CMA can be used as the Management Server.
D. Open the Global SmartDashboard, and create a new Virtual System object.
E. Open the Admin CMA SmartDashboard, and create a new Virtual System object.

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 134
Which of the following is a Multi-Context process?
A. cpd
B. synd
C. vsxd
D. gwd
E. psd

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 135
The __________ interface is configured in a VLAN environment, to allow multiple Virtual Systems to share a single physical interface on a VSX Gateway.
A. Synchronization
B. Warp
C. Symbolic
D. Physical
E. Virtual

Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 136
What is the difference between Single-Context and Multi-Context processes?
A. Single-Context processes are implemented in standard firewall deployments, while only Multi-Context processes are implemented in VSX Gateway deployments.
B. Single-Context processes are shared between VSX Gateways in an HA configuration, while Multi-Context processes are shared between VSX Gateways in a Load Sharing environment.
C. Single-Context processes are ones in which all Virtual Systems share, while Multi-Context processes are unique to each Virtual System.
D. Single-Context processes are implemented in a single VSX Gateway environment, while Multi-Context processes are only implemented in VSX Gateway High Availability (HA).
E. Single-Context processes are unique to each Virtual System on a Gateway, while Multi-Context processes are ones in which all Virtual Systems share.

Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 137
Which of the following is the only interface configured by running sysconfig, during the installation of a VSX Gateway in a single Gateway environment?
A. Synchronization interface
B. Dedicated Customer interface
C. Internal Virtual Router interface
D. Management interface
E. External interface

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 138
In a standard VSX configuration, each Virtual System is configured with which of the following interfaces?
A. One leading to the Management Virtual System, and one leading to the Internal Virtual Router/Switch
B. One leading to the Management Virtual System, and one leading to the External Virtual Router
C. One leading to a router on the external network, and one for the physical interface leading to the protected network
D. One leading to the External Virtual Router/Switch, and one for the physical interface leading to the protected network
E. One for the physical interface leading to the protected network, and one leading to the Management Virtual System

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 139
When configuring __________, the interface leading to the External Virtual Router should be set as the main IP address, and should be publicly routable.
A. Anti-spoofing
B. Virtual Systems in Bridge mode
C. Network Address Translation
D. A Virtual Switch
E. VLAN trunking interfaces

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 140
At installation, the _________ is bound to all configured physical interfaces of a VSX Gateway, UNLESS the interfaces are specifically assigned to another component.
A. VSX Management Server
B. External Virtual Router
C. Synchronization Network
D. Management Virtual System
E. Internal Virtual Router
Correct Answer: D
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QUESTION 21
Scenario: An architect is designing a NetScaler solution that implements GSLB. The solution must provide StoreFront access through a single URL worldwide and maintain a highly available configuration globally as well as locally.
How many StoreFront servers are recommended to implement this configuration?
A. Six, one site for each store
B. Six, two in each datacenter
C. Three, one in each datacenter
D. Four, two in the primary and two in the backup datacenter Correct Answer: B QUESTION 22
Scenario: Personnel are being trained using a test XenDesktop site. They must be restricted to accessing this site only while on company premises. Which StoreFront configuration should the architect recommend?
A. Enable the Domain pass-through authentication method on the store.
B. Disable the Pass-through from NetScaler authentication method on the store.
C. Configure the StoreFront servers with a separate store for this site, NOT enabled for remote access.
D. Install a certificate issued by the internal Windows Certificate Services server on the StoreFront servers.

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 23
Which two design decisions should the architect recommend to improve the user experience? (Choose two.)
A. Configure Clipboard policy
B. Configure Drive encryption
C. Configure Flash redirection
D. Configure Media redirection Correct Answer: CD QUESTION 24
Which two manually performed tasks can be streamlined by implementing a Citrix environment? (Choose two.)
A. Database backup
B. Application patching
C. Security assessment
D. Certificate management
E. Operating system installation Correct Answer: BE QUESTION 25
The company’s HDX policies must apply to a pooled virtual desktop environment without affecting any virtual applications.How should an architect apply the HDX policies?
A. By using a SmartAccess filter
B. By using a client name policy filter
C. By using a delivery group type policy filter
D. By giving the virtual desktop policy a higher priority than the virtual application policy Correct Answer: C QUESTION 26
Scenario: HR staff have a requirement to print confidential information to USB-attached printers in their offices. Any printer model may be used for this purpose. Which two recommended options should the architect consider for this solution? (Choose two.)
A. Configuring ‘Client printer names’
B. Configuring ‘Auto-create client printers’
C. Configuring ‘Universal print driver usage’
D. Enabling ‘Automatic installation of in-box printer drivers’

Correct Answer: BC QUESTION 27
The architect should recommend a Universal License because it is required for __________. (Choose the phrase that correctly completes the sentence.)
A. ICA Proxy
B. SmartAccess
C. two-factor authentication
D. SSL access inside the network Correct Answer: B QUESTION 28
An architect recommends full SSL VPN connections for remote users. Which type of NetScaler license should be applied for these users?
A. User
B. Device
C. Platform
D. Universal

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 29
Which action should an architect avoid recommending when designing a monitoring solution?
A. Installing vendor-supplied tools to monitor physical hardware
B. Installing Command Center to monitor NetScaler appliances
C. Installing agents onto NetScaler appliances to monitor utilization
D. Installing Citrix Director to monitor the XenDesktop environment Correct Answer: C QUESTION 30
An architect is explaining options for profile management. What is one issue that the architect must address in the current environment?
A. Folder redirection is implemented.
B. Roaming users have local profiles.
C. Startup scripts are used in the environment.
D. PositivelyFinance does NOT work with roaming profiles.

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 31
Which tool should the architect use in preparation for migration to Windows Server 2012 to determine application compatibility and suitability for virtualization?
A. AppDNA
B. App-V Sequencer
C. EdgeSight for End Points
D. Windows Upgrade Advisor Correct Answer: A QUESTION 32
All nurses currently use Windows XP workstations to access critical medical applications and require different applications depending on their role.Which two delivery models meet the nurses’ requirements? (Choose two.)
A. Local VM deployment with streamed applications
B. Streamed VHD deployment with streamed applications
C. Hosted server OS deployment with locally installed applications
D. Hosted desktop OS deployment with locally installed applications

Correct Answer: CD
QUESTION 33
In the new environment, the PositivelyFinance application will be deployed as a server OS- hosted application.Which two policy settings should an architect recommend to prevent data leakage from the PositivelyFinance application? (Choose two.)
A. HDX policy setting with Client drive mapping set to `Prohibited’
B. HDX policy setting with Client Clipboard Redirection set to `Prohibited’
C. HDX policy setting with File redirection on Client Network drives set to ‘Prohibited’
D. Active Directory group policy with the Do not allow clipboard redirection setting set to `Disabled’
E. Active Directory group policy with the Prevent access to drives setting set to `Restrict all drives’

Correct Answer: AB
QUESTION 34
An architect is evaluating the user profile management solution for the desktop and application virtualization solution.Which two pieces of information should the architect collect? (Choose two.)
A. User time zone
B. User profile size
C. Installed language pack
D. Client device CPU/RAM
E. Application compatibility of profile type

Correct Answer: BE
QUESTION 35
Which IOPS figures must an architect take into account when determining the IOPS requirements for a user group?
A. logical, logon, and raw
B. functional, logoff, and boot
C. steady state, boot, and raw
D. steady state, logon, and boot

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 36
Which three statements are true regarding the Radiology group? (Choose three.)
A. Mobility is important to Radiology users.
B. Mobility is unimportant to Radiology users.
C. Virtualization resource requirements are high.
D. Smooth Roaming is important to Radiology users.
E. Virtualization resource requirements are moderate.
F. Smooth Roaming is unimportant to Radiology users.

Correct Answer: BCD
QUESTION 37
An architect recommends using the monitoring function of Citrix Director to determine if users can connect to applications.Which Windows service should the architect also include in the monitoring solution?
A. Citrix Configuration Service on the Delivery Controller
B. Citrix Configuration Replication on the StoreFront server
C. World Wide Web Publishing Service on the StoreFront server
D. World Wide Web Publishing Service on the server OS machine

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 38
An architect is designing a solution that minimizes the storage footprint by utilizing thin provisioning in the datacenter.Which solution should the architect recommend for XenServer shared storage?
A. NFS
B. CIFS
C. iSCSI
D. Fibre Channel

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 39
Scenario: The company is considering replacing the Windows XP computers with new devices as part of the new solution. The new devices should require minimal support and administration, while providing a centrally managed desktop solution.
Which two methods should an architect consider to meet these requirements? (Choose two.)
A. Client OS desktop delivery group accessed from thin-client devices by using Citrix Receiver
B. Server OS desktop delivery group accessed from thin-client devices by using Citrix Receiver
C. Client OS desktop delivery group accessed from Windows-based physical desktops by using Citrix Receiver
D. Server OS application delivery group accessed from Windows-based physical desktops by using Citrix Receiver

Correct Answer: AB QUESTION 40
Scenario: Some contractors require access to various corporate applications. They must also be able to install their own applications within the environment for testing purposes.
Which two delivery methods fulfill these requirements? (Choose two.)
A. Hosted server OS with Profile Management enabled
B. Pooled hosted desktop OS with Personal vDisk enabled
C. Hosted server OS with persistent server operating system
D. Assigned hosted desktop OS with persistent desktop operating system

Correct Answer: BD QUESTION 41
An architect is recommending an antivirus policy for Provisioning Services servers that are being used to provision pooled desktops. Which two options should the architect recommend for optimal performance? (Choose two.)
A. Enable scan on read
B. Prohibit write cache scanning
C. Increase scheduled scanning frequency
D. Exclude scanning of the target device drivers

Correct Answer: BD QUESTION 42
An architect needs to design a solution that optimizes resource usage for Call Center users. How do server OS machines achieve this goal?
A. By offering optimal performance
B. By providing rapid application rollouts
C. By ensuring the greatest security level by design
D. By accommodating high user density on each server

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 43
The company’s security officer has stated that for compliance reasons, all internal and external network traffic must be encrypted. Which additional type of encryption should the architect recommend?
A. SecureICA
B. IPsec
C. SSL and SecureICA
D. L2TP Correct Answer: C

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QUESTION 21
A Citrix Administrator creates a session printer for the Engineering group; however, engineers report that
random characters are printed when they print.
Which policy settings could be causing the issue?

A. Printer assignments
B. Universal driver preference
C. Wait for printers to be created
D. Auto-create generic universal printer

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 22
Users accessing applications hosted on a specific server OS machine are unable to connect to printers from within their sessions. What could be the cause of this issue?
A. The Universal Print Server is NOT installed.
B. The universal printer driver policy is disabled.
C. The auto-create client printer policy is enabled.
D. The Citrix Print Manager Service is NOT running.

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 23
After a recent upgrade, a user is attempting to launch Microsoft Word 2010 from Receiver for Web and
receives the following error:
Cannot start app ‘Microsoft Word 2010’.
What are two potential reasons for this error? (Choose two.)

A. The application is disabled.
B. The server OS machine is NOT registered.
C. The server OS machine is in maintenance mode.
D. The user does NOT have permission to access the application.

Correct Answer: BC QUESTION 24
Scenario: An iPad user is connected to the internal wireless network. The user is attempting to use Microsoft Word 2010. This user can see other hosted applications on the iPad but CANNOT see Microsoft Word. Other users have access to Microsoft Word on their iPads.
What is preventing the user from seeing Microsoft Word 2010 on their iPad?
A. The application is NOT enabled.
B. NetScaler is NOT configured in StoreFront.
C. The user is NOT assigned to the application.
D. The server OS machine is in maintenance mode.

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 25
Scenario: A user attempts to launch their virtual desktop, “Win7 Desktop,” from within Receiver for Web.
The virtual desktop fails to launch, and the user receives a notification stating:
Cannot start desktop “Win7 Desktop”.
Which two methods could a Citrix Administrator use to resolve the issue? (Choose two.)

A. Close Receiver for Web and then reopen it.
B. Restart the virtual desktop using Citrix Director.
C. Install a new SSL Certificate on the StoreFront server.
D. Right-click the desktop icon within Receiver for Web and select ‘Restart’.

Correct Answer: BD QUESTION 26
Scenario: A user is unable to access their remote PC. The user has tried to restart the machine but is unable to do so. Why is the user unable to restart the remote PC?
A. The user is still logged in at their remote PC.
B. A user CANNOT remotely restart a remote PC.
C. The Citrix Delivery Service is NOT running on the remote PC.
D. Citrix Studio has NOT been configured to manage the remote PC.

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 27
Scenario: A company has two delivery groups with two server OS machines in each delivery group. One delivery group is for Microsoft Office 2007 server OS machines, and one delivery group is for Microsoft Office 2010 server OS machines.
Microsoft Office 2010 users are reporting performance issues, including latency and slowness in general.
Which two tools could a Citrix Administrator use to troubleshoot this issue? (Choose two.)
A. Citrix Director
B. Citrix Quick Launch
C. Performance Monitor
D. Microsoft Event Viewer

Correct Answer: AC QUESTION 28
Scenario: A CPU-intensive email application is added to a server OS machine. Several users report poor application performance, including high latency and slowness in general. The Help Desk logs show that this issue occurs at varying times of the day and has been reported from multiple remote offices.
Which two utilities should a Citrix Administrator use to troubleshoot the issue? (Choose two.)
A. Citrix Studio
B. CDFControl
C. Citrix Director
D. Performance Monitor

Correct Answer: CD QUESTION 29
After a Citrix Administrator creates a bonded network on XenServer, provisioned desktops fail to start up from the network. What could be a cause of this issue?
A. UDP 69 is closed.
B. The MTU is incorrectly configured.
C. The connection to the CIFS share is broken.
D. The status of the bonded network shows as ‘Disconnected’.

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 30
The Export Provisioning File option in the StoreFront Management Console contains __________. (Choose the correct phrase to complete the sentence.)
A. the information required to rebuild a store
B. connection details for the Delivery Controller
C. connection details for the hosting infrastructure
D. connection details for stores, including any Access Gateway deployments and beacons configured for the stores

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 31
Which three 60-minute historical trends can a Citrix Administrator view when using Citrix Director? (Choose three.)
A. CPU usage
B. Machine failures
C. License checkouts
D. Connection failures
E. Concurrent sessions
F. Memory consumption

Correct Answer: BD
QUESTION 32
Scenario: A Citrix Administrator replaces the production StoreFront server with a new StoreFront server. Users access their resources from StoreFront through NetScaler.
Which NetScaler policy must the administrator modify in order to allow users to continue to access resources securely from external locations?
A. Traffic
B. Session
C. Authorization
D. Authentication

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 33
The Sales team requests that a Citrix Administrator enhance the user experience on tablet devices. Which policy setting should the administrator enable to meet the requirements of the Sales team?
A. Multimedia Conferencing
B. Flash Content Redirection
C. Windows Media Redirection
D. Launch touch-optimized desktop

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 34
A Citrix Administrator needs to ensure that individual support teams are only able to control the delivery groups for their units.
Which feature should the administrator configure to ensure that the appropriate teams have administrator access to the desktops for their particular unit?
A. Scopes
B. Exclusion filters
C. User assignment
D. SmartAccess settings

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 35
Which two actions should a Citrix Administrator take prior to deleting desktop OS machines from a machine catalog? (Choose two.)
A. Turn off the desktop OS machines.
B. Place the desktop OS machines in maintenance mode.
C. Remove the desktop OS machines from the hypervisor.
D. Delete the Active Directory account for the desktop OS machines.
E. Enable maintenance mode on the hypervisor hosting the desktop OS machines.
Correct Answer: AB QUESTION 36
Which two methods could a Citrix Administrator use to ensure that users are able to launch multiple virtual desktop sessions? (Choose two.)
A. Change the ‘Desktops per user’ setting in the delivery groups settings.
B. Give the user multiple devices so that they can have a session open on each.
C. Create two host connections from the Delivery Controller to different hypervisors.
D. Create two delivery groups from the same catalog and assign the users to both delivery groups.

Correct Answer: AD QUESTION 37
A Citrix Administrator publishes an application but receives reports that the application is NOT visible in Receiver through StoreFront.
Why is the application NOT visible to users?
A. The application is disabled.
B. The path to the executable is incorrect.
C. There are some user groups NOT assigned to the application.
D. There are NO available server OS machines in the machine catalog.

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 38
Scenario: A Citrix Administrator is publishing a text editor for developers to use when they need to edit their configuration files. The administrator needs to ensure that the text editor launches when a developer attempts to open a configuration file.
What should the administrator implement to ensure that the hosted application launches when a developer attempts to edit a configuration file?
A. Application Security
B. Applications Strings
C. Content Redirection
D. Advanced Access Control

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 39
Which action should a Citrix Administrator take to add pooled desktops with personal vDisk to an existing Provisioning Services farm?
A. Use the XenDesktop Setup Wizard from the Provisioning Services Console.
B. Create the virtual machines manually and import the target devices using a .CSV file.
C. Create target devices in the Provisioning Services Console using the MAC addresses.
D. Enable ‘Auto-Add’ in the Provisioning Services Console and start up the virtual machines from the network.

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 40
A Citrix Administrator needs to change the port used for communication between StoreFront and the Delivery Controller.
Which configuration in the StoreFront Management Console should the administrator modify to meet this goal?
A. Stores
B. Beacons
C. Gateways
D. Authentication

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 41
Scenario: A Citrix Administrator uses Machine Creation Services to provision desktops in an environment. Productivity applications are installed locally into desktop OS machines. The administrator is instructed to update the productivity applications.
Which action should the administrator take after updating the applications in order to ensure that users are provided with the updated applications?
A. Update the master image then update the delivery group.
B. Update the machine catalog then update the delivery group.
C. Update the desktops then update the appropriate machine catalog.
D. Update the master image then update the appropriate machine catalog.

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 42
Users report that when they work remotely on weekends, they experience noticeably longer desktop launch times. Which action should a Citrix Administrator take to resolve this issue?
A. Set peak hours for the weekend.
B. Analyze the logon times in Citrix Director.
C. Schedule the weekend backups to run at night.
D. Increase the number of active machines during the weekends.

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 43
Which two tools could a Citrix Administrator use to back up XenServer metadata? (Choose two.)
A. Citrix Studio
B. Citrix Director
C. Citrix XenCenter
D. XenServer Host Console
E. XenServer Web Self Service

Correct Answer: CD QUESTION 44
Which command enables a Citrix Administrator to back up the XenServer pool configuration database?
A. xe pool-ha-disable
B. xe pool-sync-database
C. xe pool-dump-database
D. xe pool-restore-database

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 45
Which two steps must a Citrix Administrator take to adjust the size of a vDisk assigned to a server OS machine? (Choose two.)
A. Create a new vDisk.
B. Edit properties of the vDisk.
C. Edit the .PVP file with Notepad.
D. Use BNImage to reverse the image.
E. Mount the vDisk on the Provisioning Server.

Correct Answer: AD

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QUESTION 69
What is the correct frequency response for the G.711 audio algorithm?
A. 300Hz to 3.4kHz
B. 50Hz to 7kHz
C. 300Hz to 7kHz
D. 50Hz to 3.4kHz

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 70
Which of the following describes one ISDN B-Channel?
A. Network that provides 64 kilobits per second
B. Network that provides 4800 kilobits per second
C. Network that provides various rates up to 1,920,000 bits per second
D. Network that is unable to function
E. Network that provides 1,536,000 bits per second
F. Network that provides 128 kilobits per second
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 71
Which of the following correctly describes echo as it relates to acoustic echo cancellations?
A. The result of sound bouncing off the walls in the room caused by the person speaking in that room being picked up by the microphones.
B. The sound one hears when the far-end is talking and one tries to talk at the same time.
C. The sound of the far-end being returned to themselves, caused by the room microphones picking up the audio from the room loudspeakers.
D. The sound of the room reverberation as picked up by the local microphones, amplified and returned to the far-end.

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 72
Which signals are being used with Y/C video?
A. Kodachrome and polychrome
B. Chrominance and luminance
C. Red, green and blue
D. Yustra spectrum and composite

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 73
Which of the following are the ITU-T Standard that describes the Transport for T.120?
A. T.121
B. T.124
C. T.123
D. T.126
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 74
The H.239 Standard is best described as
A. Role Management -People and Content Standard for H.320 only.
B. Role Management or People and Content Standard for H.300 Series.
C. Audio Coding and Additional Media Channels.
D. Role Management and Chair Control.
E. Role Management -People and Content Standard for H.321 only.
F. Role Management and Additional Far End Camera Control.

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 75
The G.722.1 operates up to frequency response bandwidth of
A. 7000Hz.
B. 12,000Hz.
C. 600Hz.
D. 1200Hz.
E. 4800Hz.
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 76
Which audio coding standards are described by H.320?
A. G.711, G.721, G.722, and G.723
B. G.711, G.722, G.728, and G.723.1
C. G.711, G.722, G.728, and G.726
D. G.711, G.722, G.728, G.723.1, and G.729
Correct Answer: D QUESTION 77
Which of the following is considered 4SIF?
A. 640 X 480
B. 1024 X 768
C. 720 X 480

D. 800 X 600
E. 704 X 576
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 78
High-Definition Videoconferencing will require and use
A. the same camera from NTSC and PAL VTC systems
B. typical off the shelf web camera
C. All of the other alternatives apply.
D. high-definition camera

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 79
BERT testing is used for what purpose?
A. Verifying the number of Audio bit errors
B. Verifying the number of the Network bit errors
C. Verifying the number of Video bit errors
D. None of the other alternatives apply.

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 80
Which of the following Call Establishment Packets are used for ISDN Call Setup on the D Channel?
A. SETUP / CALL PROCEDING / IN PROGRESS / ALERT / CONNECT ACK
B. SETUP / CALL ROUTING OPEN / RELEASE COMPLETE
C. SETUP / RECEIVER READY / WAIT INDICATOR
D. None of the other alternatives apply.

E. SETUP / REQUEST FOR CALL / CALL SETUP VALID
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 81
Open System Interconnect describes a Model for
A. 7 Layers Communication Protocol Hierarchy with layer 1 as the most important.
B. 7 Layers Communication Protocol Hierarchy with layer 7 as the most important.
C. None of the other alternatives apply..
D. 3 Layers Communication Protocol Hierarchy with Layer 1 as the most important.
E. 3 Layers Communication Protocol Hierarchy with Layer 3 as the most important.
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 82
Which of the following video display resolutions are true 16:9 Aspect Ratio?

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QUESTION 84
NEEDS VERIFICATION. Refer to the exhibit.

What must you do to resolve the connectivity problems over the fc1/7 interface?
A. The interface port type must be set toTE_port.
B. The VSAN load balancing scheme must be changed.
C. The Domain ID on the switch must be Changed.
D. The Beacon should be turned on.

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 85
A customer is connecting some new Cisco MDS switches to an existing Brocade SAN network. The goal is to replace the existing Brocade switches with Cisco switches, while maintaining the existing multivendor SAN fabric. What must be configured to use standard interoperability mo —- between the multivendor equipment?
A. Only VSAN 1 can be used. “Pass Any Exam. Any Time.” – www.actualtests.com 37 Cisco 642-359: Practice Exam
B. Domain IDs between 97 and 127 must be used.
C. Only port-based zoning can be used.
D. Full zone set distribution must be used.

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 86
Which command in used to configure VLAN 100 on the Gigabit Ethernet 2/1 interface through which iSCSI-enabled servers should be connected to the Fibre Channel targets?
A. interface gigabitethernet 2/1 100
B. interface gigabitethernet 2/1 vlan 100
C. interface gigabitethernet 2/1 encapsulation isl 100
D. interface gigabitethernet2/1 vlan 100

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 87
Refer to the exhibit.

What alarm will be sent for this RMON event?
A. FCIP link failure
B. Fibre Channel link down
C. Fibre Channel link failure “Pass Any Exam. Any Time.” – www.actualtests.com 38 Cisco 642-359: Practice Exam
D. Fibre Channel link reestablishment

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 88
You have deployed a Fibre Channel network with iSCSI-attached servers and clients in multiple IP networks. In you Fibre Channel network, you have deployed a Cisco MDS 9222i switch as an iSCSI gateway. Which option prevents clients from attaching to different iSCSI virtual targets that are used by servers?
A. Use iSCSI proxy initiator mode on Gigabit Ethernet interfaces for the server side.
B. Deploy static iSCSI initiator maps and attach them to Gigabit Ethernet interfaces.
C. Dedicate one Gigabit Ethernet interface for servers and restrict those iSCSI virtual target advertising to the dedicated Gigabit Ethernet interface.
D. Enable the trespass option for the iSCSI virtual targets.

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 89
Refer to the exhibit. “Pass Any Exam. Any Time.” – www.actualtests.com 39 Cisco 642-359: Practice Exam

The customer network has blue and red VSANs redundantly connected. Path A having a 4-ISL port channel and Path B having a 2-ISL port channel. Changes to the physical topology are not allowed for the next six months. All the traffic now flows over Path A with congestion occurring on both VSANs at peak times. The blue VSAN is, on the average, generating four times the amount of data than that of the red VSAN. How can the blue and red VSAN traffic be separated over the two paths, while preserving redundancy?
A. Make a zone in the blue VSAN with only ISL ports on Path B, and make another zone in the red VSAN with only ISL ports on Path A.
B. Make a zone in the blue VSAN with only ISL ports on Path A, and make another zone in the red VSAN with only ISL ports on Path B.
C. In the blue VSAN, give Path B a lower FSPF cost than Path A, in the red VSAN, give Path A a lower FSPF cost than Path B.
D. In the blue VSAN, give Path A a lower FSPF cost than Path B, in the red VSAN, give Path B a lower FSPF cost than Path A.

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 90
“Pass Any Exam. Any Time.” – www.actualtests.com 40 Cisco 642-359: Practice Exam
Refer to the exhibit.

Which action should you take to connect the Cisco MDS Switch to an existing Brocade and McData multivendor using interoperability mode 1?
A. Reconfigure the DomainID to 100.
B. Change the sWWN using the McData OUI.
C. Force the principal switch election with priority 1.
D. Disable the VSAN functionality.

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 91
Refer to the exhibit. Which two options do you need to deploy for the topology depicted to interconnect the MDS (SAN) and the Nexus 5000 (LAN)? (Choose two.)
A. Fibre Channel expansion module
B. consolidated network adapter
C. Fibre Channel license package
D. FCoE-enabled module
E. generation 3 line cards

Correct Answer: DE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 92
Refer to the exhibit.
“Pass Any Exam. Any Time.” – www.actualtests.com 41 Cisco 642-359: Practice Exam

What is the effect of enabling the VSAN scope with number 500 when creating the SalesUser role?
A. The user connecting to the Fibre Channel fabric would be restricted to VSAN 500.
B. The user would be able to use allowed commands in VSAN 500 only.
C. The user would be excluded from VSAN 500.
D. The user would be able to create VSAN from 1 to 500.

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 93
Which two Cisco MDS features allow fabric-wide consistent and VSAN-independent configurations of the zoning information? (Choose two.)
A. CFS
B. sWWN
C. Fibre Channel alias
D. Device alias
E. Interface ID
F. port-based zoning

Correct Answer: DE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
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QUESTION 35
To isolate a video problem as hardware or software on a MAC, which of the following steps should you try FIRST?
A. Replace the built-in-display
B. Reinstall the appropriate MAC OS
C. Verify the hard disk with Disk First Aid
D. Startup from a known-good startup disc.

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 36
You are about to begin disassembly of an iMAC (24-inch Mid 2007) to replace the LCD display. Which TWO of the following tools are required to do this? SELECT TWO
A. Multimeter
B. Suction Cups
C. Service stand
D. Anti-static, lint-free gloves
E. Torx T-15 drivers with 5 inch shaft
Correct Answer: BD
QUESTION 37
The two primary goals of troubleshooting are_____and______. SELECT TWO
A. repairing a product quickly
B. repairing a product cheaply
C. repairing a product properly
D. using as many parts as possible
E. running as many diagnostics as possible

Correct Answer: BD
QUESTION 38
Where is the best place for a customer to look for information about locating her MAC’s serial number?
A. Downloads
B. Discussions
C. Service News
D. User’s manual

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 39
Which THREE of the following components should you be very careful with, when working inside an Apple portable? SELECT THREE
A. Plastic tab
B. Small screw
C. Deflection coil
D. Ribbon cable
E. Anode aperture
F. Flyback transformer

Correct Answer: ABD
QUESTION 40
On a MACBook Pro, Safe Sleep ensures that __________.
A. Any open IP Ports from services are closed before putting the machine to sleep.
B. The machine is locked with a configured password after specified amount of time.
C. Data stored in main memory will not be lost should the system shut down due to power loss while the machine is asleep.
D. The user is prompted tp save documents in any open applications before machine is put to sleep using the Sleep command from the Apple menu.
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 41
Where is the BEST place to look for information regarding special take-apart tools for an Apple product?
A. Discussions
B. Service News
C. User’s manual
D. Service Manual
Correct Answer: D

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QUESTION 1
Which three statements about the EIGRP routing protocol are true? (Choose three)
A. EIGRP supports five generic packet types, including Hello, Database Description (DBD), Linkstate Request (LSR), Link-State Update (LSU), and LSAck.
B. EIGRP sends periodic hello packets to the multicast IP address 224.0.0.10.
C. EIGRP will not form a neighbor relationship with another peer when their AS number and K values, either or both are mismatched.
D. EIGRP sends periodic hello packets to the multicast IP address 224.0.0.9.
E. EIGRP will form a neighbor relationship with another peer even when their K values are mismatched.
F. EIGRP supports five generic packet types, including Hello, Update, Query, Reply, and ACK packets.
Correct Answer: BCF Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Reference: http://www.ietf.org/id/draft-savage-eigrp-00.txt (see eigrp packets) http://www.ciscopress.com/articles/article.asp?p=27839
QUESTION 2
After DUAL calculations, a router has identified a successor route, but no routes have qualified as a feasible successor. In the event that the current successor goes down, what process will EIGRP use in the selection of a new successor?
A. EIGRP will find the interface with the lowest MAC address
B. The route will transition to the active state
C. The route will transition to the passive state
D. EIGRP will automatically use the route with the lowest feasible distance(FD)
E. EIGRP will automatically use the route with the lowest advertised distance(AD)
Correct Answer: B Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation When a route (current successor) goes down, the router first checks its topology table for a feasible successor but it can’t find one. So it goes active on the that route to find a new successor by sending queries out to its neighbors requesting a path to the lost route.
QUESTION 3
Refer to the exhibit.

A. R1(config)# router eigrp 1 R1(config-router)# passive-interface serial 0
B. R2(config)# router eigrp 1 R2(config-router)# passive-interface serial 0
C. R1(config)# access-list 20 deny any R1(config)# router eigrp 1 R1(config-router)# distribute-list 20 out serial 0
D. R2(config)# access-list 20 deny any R2(config)# router eigrp 1 R2(config-router)# distribute-list 20 out serial 0
E. R1(config)# access-list 20 permit any R1(config)# router eigrp 1 R1(config-router)# distribute-list 20 in serial 0
F. R2(config)# access-list 20 permit any R2(config)# router eigrp 1 R2(config-router)# distribute-list 20 in serial 0
Correct Answer: C Explanation Explanation/Reference:

Explanation:
We can not use passive-interfaces to accomplish this task because the “passive-interface…” command (in EIGRP or OSPF) will shut down the neighbor
relationship of these two routers (no hello packets are exchanged). And to filter routing updates we should configure a distribute list on R1 with an
access list that deny all and apply it to the outbound direction so that R1 can receive but cannot send routing updates.

QUESTION 4
EIGRP has been configured to operate over Frame Relay multipoint connections. What should the bandwidth command be set to?
A. the CIR rate of the lowest speed connection multiplied by the number of circuits
B. the CIR rate of the lowest speed connection
C. the CIR rate of the highest speed connection
D. the sum of all the CIRs divided by the number of connections
Correct Answer: A Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
If the multipoint network has different speeds allocated to the VCs, take the lowest CIR and simply multiply it by the number of circuits. This is because
in Frame-relay all neighbors share the bandwidth equally, regardless of the actual CIR of each individual PVC, so we have to get the lowest speed CIR
rate and multiply it by the number of circuits. This result will be applied on the main interface (or multipoint connection interface).

QUESTION 5
Refer to the exhibit.

EIGRP is configured on all routes in the network. On a basis of the show ip eigrp topology output provided, what conclusion can be derived?
A. Router R1 can send traffic destined for network 10.6.1.0/24 out of interface FastEthernet0/0
B. Router R1 is waiting for a reply from the neighbor 10.1.2.1 to the hello message sent out before it declares the neighbor unreachable
C. Router R1 is waiting for a reply from the neighbor 10.1.2.1 to the hello message sent out inquiring for a second successor to network 10.6.1.0/24
D. Router R1 is waiting for a reply from the neighbor 10.1.2.1 in response to the query sent about network 10.6.1.0/24

Correct Answer: D Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
The “show ip eigrp topology” command lists all routes that EIGRP is aware of and shows whether EIGRP is actively processing information on that route.
Under most normal conditions, the routes should all be in a passive state and no EIGRP process are running for that route. If the routes are active, this
could indicate the dreaded stuck in active, or SIA, state.
The fields to note in this output are as follows:

P–Passive; no EIGRP computation is being performed. This is the ideal state. A–Active; EIGRP computations are “actively” being performed for this
destination. Routes constantly appearing in an active state indicate a neighbor or query problem.
Both are symptoms of the SIA problem.
U– Update; an update packet was sent to this destination. Q–Query; a query packet was sent to this destination. R– Reply; a reply packet was sent to
this destination. Route information– IP address of the route or network, its subnet mask, and the successor, or next hop to that network, or the feasible
successor.

QUESTION 6
Refer to the exhibit.

EIGRP has been configured on all routers in the network. What additional configuration statement should be included on router R4 to advertise a default
route to its neighbors?
A. R4(config)# ip default-network 10.0.0.0
B. R4(config)# ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 10.1.1.1
C. R4(config)# ip route 10.0.0.0 255.0.0.0 10.1.1.1
D. R4(config-router)# default-information originate

Correct Answer: A Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: Unlike the ip default-gateway command, you can use ip default-network when ip routing is enabled on the Cisco router. When you configure ip default-network the router considers routes to that network for installation as the gateway of last resort on the router. For every network configured with ip default-network, if a router has a route to that network, that route is flagged as a candidate default route. Gateways of last resort selected using the ip default-network command are propagated differently depending on which routing protocol is propagating the default route. For IGRP and EIGRP to propagate the route, the network specified by the ip default-network command must be known to IGRP or EIGRP. This means the network must be an IGRP- or EIGRP- derived network in the routing table, or the static route used to generate the route to the network must be redistributed into IGRP or EIGRP, or advertised into these protocols using the network command. In this case, the 10.0.0.0 network is indeed being advertised via EIGRP.
Reference: http://www.cisco.com/en/US/tech/tk365/technologies_tech_note09186a0080094374.shtml#ip network
QUESTION 7
Refer to the exhibit.

Router RTA is the hub router for routers RTB and RTC. The Frame Relay network is configured with EIGRP, and the entire network is in autonomous system 1. However, router RTB and RTC are not receiving each other’s routes. What is the solution?
A. Configure the auto summary command under router eigrp 1 on router RTA.
B. Issue the no ip split horizon command on router RTA.
C. Configure subinterfaces on the spoke routers and assign different IP address subnets for each subinterface.
D. Check and change the access lists on router RTA.
E. Issue the no ip split horizon eigrp 1 command on router RTA.
F. Configure a distribute list on router RTA that allows it to advertise all routes to the spoke routers.
Correct Answer: E Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Split horizon controls the sending of EIGRP update and query packets. When split horizon is enabled on an interface, these packets are not sent for
destinations for which this interface is the next hop. This reduces the possibility of routing loops.

By default, split horizon is enabled on all interfaces. Split horizon blocks route information from being advertised by a router out of any interface from
which that information originated. This behavior usually optimizes communications among multiple routing devices, particularly when links are broken.
However, with nonbroadcast networks (such as Frame Relay and SMDS), situations can arise for which this behavior is less than ideal. For these
situations, you may want to disable split horizon. In this example, routes received by RTB and RTC are not being sent back out the same serial interface
on RTA, so they are not receiving each other’s routes. Disabling Split horizons on interface S0/0 on RTA will fix this issue.

QUESTION 8
Which two routing protocols require a metric to be configured when redistributing routes from other protocols? (Choose two.)
A. RIP
B. BGP
C. IS-IS
D. OSPF
E. EIGRP
Correct Answer: AE Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Metrics must be set manually via configuration when redistributing into RIP and EIGRP, whereas OSPF uses a default value of 20.

Example:
EIGRP
router eigrp 1
redistribute ospf 1 metric 1544 5 255 1 1500
redistribute rip metric 1544 5 255 1 1500
network 15.0.0.0

RIP
router rip
version 2
redistribute eigrp 1 metric 2
redistribute ospf 1 metric 3
network 16.0.0.0

QUESTION 9
When troubleshooting an EIGRP connectivity problem, you notice that two connected EIGRP routers are not becoming EIGRP neighbors. A ping between the two routers was successful. What is the next thing that should be checked?
A. Verify that the EIGRP hello and hold timers match exactly.
B. Verify that EIGRP broadcast packets are not being dropped between the two routers with the show ip EIGRP peer command.
C. Verify that EIGRP broadcast packets are not being dropped between the two routers with the show ip EIGRP traffic command.
D. Verify that EIGRP is enabled for the appropriate networks on the local and neighboring router.

Correct Answer: D Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
The point of this question is about the condition of establish EIGRP neighbor. You can use these ways to troubleshoot the EIGRP connectivity problem.

1.
Whether EIGRP is enabled for the proper networks.

2.
Whether the K values of EIGRP neighbors is the same.

3.
Whether EIGRP autonomous number is the same.
Incorrect answers:
*. EIGRP use multicast, not broadcast.
*. EIGRP use multicast, not broadcast.
*. Hello and hold timers match is the condition of establish OSPF neighbor,not EIGRP.

QUESTION 10
Refer to the exhibit.

You are the network administrator of the Route.com company. You have been tasked to implement a hub and spoke EIGRP topology over Frame Relay to provide connectivity between the networks at headquarters and all 300 spokes. Before you begin the actual implementation, which three pieces of information are more important to know than the others? (Choose three.)
A. the Committed Information Rate of all the Frame Relay PVCs
B. the Cisco IOS version running on all the routers
C. the router model number of all the spoke routers
D. the number of HQ networks connected behind the headquarter routers
E. the routing policy, such as whether or not the spokes can be used as backup transient point between the two headquarter routers

Correct Answer: ABE Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: You have to know the committed information rate because it is a bandwidth associated with logical connection in a PVC. You also need to know the IOS version on all routers so that there is no conflict in versions. As per the topology, you need to know the routing policy because it will be used as a backup transient point between headquarter routers
QUESTION 11
Refer to the exhibit.

The Route.com company is running EIGRP between all the routers. Currently, if one of the LAN links (LAN1 or LAN2) at the headquarters flaps (goes up
and down), the HQ-RTR1 and HQ-RTR2 routers will experience high CPU usage and have a long EIGRP convergence time. As the new network
administrator, you are asked to investigate this situation and determine if there is a quick way to resolve this issue.
Which is the most important thing that you can quickly verify first to resolve this issue?

A. Verify that the bandwidth setting on all WAN links is correct.
B. Verify that the HQ-RTR1 and HQ-RTR2 routers are configured to send only a default route to all the spoke routers.
C. Verify that the HQ-RTR1 and HQ-RTR2 routers are configured for EIGRP Nonstop Forwarding.
D. Verify that all the spoke routers are configured for auto summarization.
E. Verify that all the spoke routers are configured as EIGRP stub.
Correct Answer: E Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: Stub routing is commonly used in a hub and spoke network topology. In a hub and spoke network, one or more end (stub) networks are connected to a remote router (the spoke) that is connected to one or more distribution routers (the hub). The remote router is adjacent only to one or more distribution routers. The only route for IP traffic to follow into the remote router is through a distribution router. This type of configuration is commonly used in WAN topologies where the distribution router is directly connected to a WAN. The distribution router can be connected to many more remote routers. Often, the distribution router will be connected to 100 or more remote routers. In a hub and spoke topology, the remote router must forward all nonlocal traffic to a distribution router, so it becomes unnecessary for the remote router to hold a complete routing table. Generally, the distribution router need not send anything more than a default route to the remote router.
When using the EIGRP Stub Routing feature, you need to configure the distribution and remote routers to use EIGRP, and to configure only the remote router as a stub. Only specified routes are propagated from the remote (stub) router. The router responds to queries for summaries, connected routes, redistributed static routes, external routes, and internal routes with the message “inaccessible.” A router that is configured as a stub will send a special peer information packet to all neighboring routers to report its status as a stub router.
Any neighbor that receives a packet informing it of the stub status will not query the stub router for any routes, and a router that has a stub peer will not query that peer. The stub router will depend on the distribution router to send the proper updates to all peers.
Reference: http://www.cisco.com/en/US/docs/ios/12_0s/feature/guide/eigrpstb.html
QUESTION 12
Refer to the exhibit.

When you examine the routing tables of R1 and R4, you are not able to see the R1 Ethernet subnet on the R4 routing table. You are also not able to see the R4 Ethernet subnet on the R1 routing table.
Which two configuration changes should be made to resolve this issue? Select the routers where the configuration change will be required, and select the required EIGRP configuration command(s). Choose two answers. (Choose two.)
A. R1 and R4
B. R2 and R3
C. ip summary-address eigrp 1 10.1.1.0 255.255.255.0 and ip summary-address eigrp 1 10.2.2.0 255.255.255.0
D. variance 2
E. eigrp stub connected
F. no auto-summary

Correct Answer: BF Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: Of course, the routing is going through R2 and R3 to reach R4. So the two routers that need configuration change are R2 and R3. Also you need to set auto-summary to No. The no auto-summary command configures classless routing protocols such as RIPv2 and EIGRP to really act as classless because by default they’re classfull.
QUESTION 13
Refer to the exhibit.

The actual speed of the serial links between R2 and R3 are 256 kb/s and 512 kb/s. When configuring EIGRP on routers R2 and R3, the network administrator configured the bandwidth of both serial interfaces to 512 kb/s.
What will be the effect?
A. EIGRP will over utilize the 512 kb/s link.
B. The interface “delay” value used in the EIGRP metric calculation will be inaccurate on the 256 kb/s serial interface.
C. The amount of bandwidth used for EIGRP routing protocol traffic on the 256 kb/s link can become excessive.
D. EIGRP can load balance between the two serial links only if the variance is set to 2 or higher.
E. Unequal cost load balancing will be disabled.

Correct Answer: C Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: If you assign more bandwidth than what is available between R2 and R3, the EIGRP traffic will become excessive because it uses only the actual bandwidth.
QUESTION 14
Refer to the exhibit.

ROUTE.com has just implemented this EIGRP network. A network administrator came to you for advice while trying to implement load balancing across part of their EIGRP network. If the variance value is configured as 2 on all routers and all other metric and K values are configured to their default values, traffic from the Internet to the data center will be load balanced across how many paths?
A.1
B.2
C.3
D.4
E.5

Correct Answer: C Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation
First we should list all the paths from the Internet to the data center:
+
A-B-C-H with a metric of 70 (40 + 15 + 15)

+
A-B-E-H with a metric of 60 (40+10+10)

+
A-D-E-H with a metric of 30 (10+10+10)

+
A-D-E-B-C-H with a metric of 60 (10+10+10+15+15)

+
A-D-E-F-G-H with a metric of 70 (10+10+10+20+20)

+
A-F-G-H with a metric of 60 (20+20+20)

+
A-F-E-H with a metric of 40 (20+10+10)
So the path A-D-E-H will be chosen because it has the best metric. But EIGRP can support unequal cost path load balancing. By configuring the variance value of 2, the minimum metric is increased to 60 (30 * 2) and all the routes that have a metric of less than or equal to 60 and satisfy the feasibility condition will be used to send traffic.
Besides the main path A-D-E-H we have 4 more paths that have the metric of less than or equal to 60 (we also include the Advertised Distances of these routes for later comparison):
+
A-B-E-H with an AD of 20

+
A-D-E-B-C-H with an AD of 50

+
A-F-G-H with an AD of 40

+
A-F-E-H with an AD of 20
Now the last thing we need to consider is the feasible condition. The feasible condition states:
“To qualify as a feasible successor, a router must have an AD less than the FD of the current successor route”
The FD of the current successor route here is 30 (notice that the variance number is not calculated here). Therefore there are only 2 paths that can satisfy this conditions: the path A-B-E-H & A-F-E-H.
In conclusion, traffic from the Internet to the data center will be load balanced across 3 paths, including the main path (successor path)
QUESTION 15
Refer to the exhibit.

A Boston company bought the assets of a New York company and is trying to route traffic between the two data networks using EIGRP. The show command output shows that traffic will not flow between the networks. As a network consultant, you were asked to modify the configuration and certify the interoperability of the two networks. For traffic to flow from subnet 172.16.8.0/24 to the 172.16.16.0/24 subnet.
Which configuration change do you recommend?
A. Turn off autosummarization on routers N1 and B1.
B. Add IP summary addresses to the Internet-pointing interfaces of routers N1 and B1.
C. Turn off auto summarization on routers N2 and B2.
D. Add wildcard masks to the network commands on routers N2 and B2.

Correct Answer: A Explanation Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: Basically auto route summarization happens at the classful network boundary…so that would make N1 and B1 the locations that summarization would occur for the 172.16.0.0/16 classful networks.
So if you left auto-summarization enabled on those 2 routers, you would have an issue with discontiguous networks being advertised by both routers N1 and B1 with their classful mask (172.16.0.0/16 and 10.0.0.0/8), which will cause you issues.
Turning off auto-summarization on N2 and B2 wouldn’t make any difference, as their networks wouldn’t be summarized due to the fact that they are not meeting a classful boundary on their perspective routers. N1 will receive the 172.16.8.0/24 network from N2 with auto-summarization enabled.
QUESTION 16
Refer to the exhibit.

A Boston company bought the assets of a New York company and is trying to route traffic between the two data networks using EIGRP over EoMPLS. As a network consultant, you were asked to verify the interoperability of the two networks.
From the show ip route command output, what can you tell the customer about the traffic flow between the subnet in New York (172.16.8.0/24) and the subnets in Boston (172.16.16.0/24 and 10.10.16.0/24)?
A. Traffic is flowing between the 172.16.8.0 subnet and subnets 172.16.16.0 and 10.10.16.0 and no configuration changes are needed.
B. Auto-summary must be disabled on N1 and B1 before traffic can flow between the 172.16.8.0 subnet and subnets 172.16.16.0 and 10.10.16.0.
C. Traffic will flow between the 172.16.8.0 subnet and 172.16.16.0 without any further configuration changes. However, auto-summary must be disabled on N1 and B1 before traffic can flow between the 172.16.8.0 subnet and the 10.10.16.0 subnet.
D. Auto-summary must be disabled on N1 and B1 before traffic can flow between the 172.16.8.0 subnet and the 172.16.16.0 subnet. However, traffic will flow between the 172.16.8.0 subnet and 10.10.16.0 without any further configuration changes.

Correct Answer: B Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: Basically auto route summarization happens at the classful network boundary…so that would make N1 and B1 the locations that summarization would occur for the 172.16.0.0/16 classful networks.
So if you left auto-summarization enabled on those 2 routers, you would have an issue with discontiguous networks being advertised by both routers N1 and B1 with their classful mask (172.16.0.0/16 and 10.0.0.0/8), which will cause you issues.
Turning off auto-summarization on N2 and B2 wouldn’t make any difference, as their networks wouldn’t be summarized due to the fact that they are not meeting a classful boundary on their perspective routers.
QUESTION 17
Which condition must be satisfied before an EIGRP neighbor can be considered a feasible successor?
A. The neighbor’s advertised distance must be less than or equal to the feasible distance of the current successor.
B. The neighbor’s advertised distance must be less than the feasible distance of the current successor.
C. The neighbor’s advertised distance must be greater than the feasible distance of the current successor.
D. The neighbor’s advertised distance must be equal to the feasible distance of the current successor.
E. The neighbor’s advertised distance must be greater than or equal to the feasible distance of the current successor.
Correct Answer: B Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: The feasible successor route is a route which has a higher metric than the successor route to reach a subnet but meets the feasibility condition and can be used in the event that the successor route goes down. This route does NOT get installed in the routing table but is kept in the topology table. The feasibility condition states that the AD from a neighbor must be less than the metric of the successor route (the feasible distance [FD]) because routing through a feasible successor when the AD > FD may cause a routing loop.

QUESTION 18
Which statement about a non-zero value for the load metric (k2) for EIGRP is true?
A. A change in the load on an interface will cause EIGRP to recalculate the routing metrics and send a corresponding update out to each of its neighbors.
B. EIGRP calculates interface load as a 5-minute exponentially weighted average that is updated every 5 minutes.
C. EIGRP considers the load of an interface only when sending an update for some other reason.
D. A change in the load on an interface will cause EIGRP to recalculate and update the administrative distance for all routes learned on that interface.
Correct Answer: C Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation
The load metric (k2) represents the worst load on a link between source and destination. EIGRP routing updates are triggered only by a change in
network topology (like links, interfaces go up/down, router added/removed), and not by change in interface load or reliability.
The load is a five minute exponentially weighted average that is updated every five seconds (not five minutes) .

EIGRP considers the load of an interface only when sending an update for some other reason (like a link failure)

QUESTION 19
Your network consists of a large hub-and-spoke Frame Relay network with a CIR of 56 kb/s for each spoke. Which statement about the selection of a dynamic protocol is true?
A. EIGRP would be appropriate if LMI type ANSI is NOT used.
B. EIGRP would be appropriate, because the Frame Relay spokes could be segmented into their own areas.
C. EIGRP would be appropriate, because by default, queries are not propagated across the slow speed Frame Relay links.
D. EIGRP would be appropriate, because you can manage how much bandwidth is consumed over the Frame Relay interface.
Correct Answer: D Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation
By default, EIGRP will limit itself to using no more than 50% of the interface bandwidth. The primary benefit of controlling EIGRP’s bandwidth usage is to avoid losing EIGRP packets, which could occur when EIGRP generates data faster than the interface line can absorb it. This is of particular benefit on Frame Relay networks, where the access interface bandwidth and the PVC capacity may be very different.
For example, in our Frame Relay topology a Hub is connected with 4 Spoke routers. The main Frame Relay interface on Hub router is 512Kpbs which is not enough to use for 6 links of 128 Kbps ( = 768 Kbps).

The solution here is we can use 512 / 6 = 85 Kbps on each subinterface of Hub by using “bandwidth 85 command. For example:
Hub(config)#interface Serial0/0.1 point-to-point Hub(config-subif)#bandwidth 85 Also on Spoke routers we need to set this value. For example on Spoke1:
Spoke1(config)#interface Serial0/1.0 point-to-point Spoke1(config-subif)#bandwidth 85
Notice that by default, EIGRP limits itself to use no more than 50% of the configured interface bandwidth. In this case EIGRP will not use more than 42.5 Kbps (50% of 85 Kbps).
(For more information about implementing EIGRP over Frame Relay, please read http://www.cisco.com/en/US/tech/tk365/ technologies_tech_note09186a0080094063.shtml)
QUESTION 20
Refer to the exhibit. Why are the EIGRP neighbors for this router not learning the routes redistributed from OSPF?

A. Redistribution must be enabled mutually (in both directions) to work correctly.
B. Auto-summary causes the OSPF routes redistributed into EIGRP to be summarized; thus the OSPF network 116.16.34 is summarized to 116.34.0.0, which is already covered by the EIGRP protocol.
C. Default metrics are not configured under EIGRP.
D. Both routing protocols must have unique autonomous system numbers for redistribution to function correctly.
Correct Answer: C Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation
Same as RIP, when redistribute into EIGRP from OSPF, the default metric is infinite -> We must set a seed metric when redistributing into EIGRP. Below lists the default seed metrics when redistributing from a routing protocol into another:

QUESTION 21
Refer to the exhibit.

Which three statements are true? (Choose three.)
A. On the routing table of R4, the 10.1.1.0/24 route appears as an O E2 route.
B. On R4, the 172.16.1.0/24 route has a metric of 20.
C. The R3 S0/0 interface should not need the no ip split-horizon eigrp 1 configuration command for the 172.16.1.0/24 route to appear in the routing table of R2 as an D EX route.
D. The administrative distance of the 172.16.1.0/24 route in the routing table of R3 is 170.
E. On R5, the 4.0.0.0/8 route will have an administrative distance of 120 and a hop count of 6.
Correct Answer: ABD Explanation Explanation/Reference:
Explanation
When redistributing into OSPF, the default route type is E2. Notice that the cost of E2 type is always the cost of external route only.
Also, the default seed metric when redistributing into OSPF is always 20 (except for BGP, which is 1)
When redistributing into EIGRP, the external EIGRP routes have an administrative distance of 170 by default

QUESTION 22
Refer to the exhibit.

Looking at the topology diagram and the partial router configurations shown, which statement is true?
A. A routing loop will occur due to mutual route redistribution occurring on R1 and R2.
B. Suboptimal routing will occur due to mutual route redistribution occurring on R1 and R2.
C. Additional route filtering configurations using route maps and ACLs are required on the R1 and R2 routers to prevent routing loops.
D. R2 will not be able to redistribute the EIGRP subnets into OSPF, because R2 is missing the default seed metric for OSPF.
E. The 10.1.1.0/24 subnet will appear as 10.0.0.0/8 in the R5 routing table.

Correct Answer: E Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation RIPv1 is a classful routing protocol so the subnet 10.1.1.0/24 will be summarized to 10.0.0.0/8 in the R5 routing table. If we use RIPv2 on R1, R5 and use the “no auto-summary” command on R1 then the 10.1.1.0 subnet will appear in the routing table of R5. Notice that even if the “auto-summary” command is configured under “router eigrp 1 of R1 but when redistributing into another routing protocol EIGRP still advertises the detailed network.
QUESTION 23
You have implemented mutual route redistribution between OSPF and EIGRP on a border router. When checking the routing table on one of the EIGRP routers within the EIGRP routing domain, you are seeing some, but not all of the expected routes. What should you verify to troubleshoot this problem?
A. The border router is using a proper seed metric for OSPF.
B. The border router is using a proper seed metric for EIGRP.
C. The administrative distance is set for OSPF and EIGRP.
D. The missing OSPF routes are present in the routing table of the border router.
E. The subnet keyword on the border router in the redistribute OSPF command.
Correct Answer: D Explanation Explanation/Reference:
Explanation
We are checking the routing table on EIGRP routers not OSPF so we don’t need to check the seed metric for OSPF. Besides OSPF doesn’t need to specify seed metric as all external routes get a default metric of 20 (except for BGP, which is 1). We must specify seed metrics when redistributing into EIGRP (and RIP). If not all the redistributed routes will not be seen but the question says only
some routes are missing.
The default administrative distance for external routes redistributed into EIGRP is 170 so we don’t need to set it .
The sunbet keyword is only used when redistributing into OSPF, not to other routing protocols .
We should check the routing table of the border router to see the missing OSPF routes are there or not. An incorrect distribute-list can block some

routes and we can’t see it in other EIGRP routers.

QUESTION 24
You have implemented mutual route redistribution between OSPF and EIGRP on a border router. When checking the routing table on one of the OSPF routers within the OSPF routing domain, you are seeing some, but not all of the expected routes.
Which two things should you verify to troubleshoot this problem? (Choose two.)
A. The border router is using a proper seed metric for OSPF.
B. The border router is using a proper seed metric for EIGRP.
C. The administrative distance is set for OSPF and EIGRP.
D. The missing EIGRP routes are present in the routing table of the border router.
E. The subnet keyword on the border router in the redistribute EIGRP command.
Correct Answer: DE Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: When troubleshooting EIGRP routes being distributed into OSPF, the first item to check is that the missing EIGRP routes are in fact on the router performing the redistribution (border router). If not, the routes cannot be redistributed into OSPF and troubleshooting should occur within the EIGRP AS.
The second step is to verify that the subnets keyword has been appended to the redistribute eigrp statement under the OSPF routing process. The question mentions that the networks being redistributed are using a /28 mask, with implies that the networksare actually subnets not assigned to classful boundaries.
OSPF will only redistribute classful networks by default. The keyword “subnets” allows subnets to also be be redistributed into OSPF (not merely classful routes).
QUESTION 25
Refer to the exhibit.

All EIGRP load balancing parameters are set to their defaults. You want to use all the routes in the EIGRP topology for IP load balancing Which two EIGRP subcommands would you use to accomplish this goal? (Choose two.)
A. traffic-share balanced
B. distance
C. maximum-paths
D. default-network
E. variance

Correct Answer: CE Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation
Notice that the “maximum-paths” command is used to share traffic to equal cost path while the “variance” command can share traffic to unequal cost path.
In the output above we learn that EIGRP is using 2 successors to send traffic. By using the “variance 2 command we can share traffic to other feasible successor routes. But by default, EIGRP only shares traffic to 4 paths. So we need to use the “maximum-paths 6 to make sure all of these routes are used.
QUESTION 26
Refer to the exhibit.

R1 accesses the Internet using E0/0. You have been asked to configure R1 so that a default route is generated to its downstream neighbors (191.0.0.1 and 192.0.0.1). Which commands would create this configuration?
A. router eigrp 190 redistribute static ! ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 Null0
B. ip default-network 20.0.0.0
C. router eigrp 190 redistribute static ! ip route 0.0.0.0 255.255.255.255 Null0
D. ip default-network 20.20.20.0
Correct Answer: A Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: Since you are running EIGRP and you have other routers that need a default route, you can use EIGRP to distribute that without having to program static routes in each. Since 2 are default routes they are only used on the router that they are configured on. The first option has you configure the static route as well as a way to redistribute that route to other routers connecting to you via EIGRP. This will essentially publish this route the same as if it were programmed in with the network x.x.x.x sub-command in the router eigrp 100 routing table.
QUESTION 27
Refer to the exhibit.

A partial routing configuration is shown. Complete the configuration so that only the default- network is redistributed from EIGRP 190 into EIGRP 212. Which ACL statement completes the configuration correctly?
A. access-list 100 permit ip 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0
B. access-list 100 permit ip host 0.0.0.0 any
C. access-list 100 permit ip any host 0.0.0.0
D. A default-network cannot be redistributed between routing processes.
Correct Answer: C Explanation Explanation/Reference:
Explanation The command “access-list 100 permit ip any host 0.0.0.0 means permit any source address with the destination of 0.0.0.0/0, which is the default route Note: any equals 0.0.0.0 255.255.255.255
host 0.0.0.0 equals 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0
QUESTION 28
Refer to the exhibit.

Which three commands should be used on router B1 to redistribute the EIGRP AS 10 routes into RIP? (Choose three.)
A. router rip
B. router eigrp 10
C. redistribute eigrp 10
D. redistribute rip
E. default-metric 10000 100 255 1 1500
F. default-metric 5
Correct Answer: ACF Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Reference: http://www.cisco.com/en/US/tech/tk365/technologies_tech_note09186a008009487e.shtml#ri p
QUESTION 29
You want the redistributed EIGRP AS 10 routes to have an administrative distance of 121 when they appear as RIP routes in the routing table of A1. Which command should you use on a router to accomplish this goal?

A. redistribute eigrp 10 metric 121
B. redistribute rip metric 121
C. default-metric 121
D. distance 121 10.1.1.6 0.0.0.0
Correct Answer: D Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
If you add that route back with an administrative distance of 121, the ASA will still prefer the route learned via RIP because it prefers the route with a
lower administrative distance.

QUESTION 30
Refer to the exhibit.

In a redundant hub-and-spoke deployment using EIGRP, what feature can be used to ensure that routers C through F are not used as transit routers for
data traveling from router B to network 10.1.1.0? Select the best response
A. Use address summarization at routers C, D, E, and F.
B. Use the EIGRP Stub feature on routers C, D, E, and F.
C. Use passive-interface on the spoke links in routers A and B.
D. Change the administrative distance in routers A and B for routes learned from routers C, D, E, and F.

Correct Answer: B Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation
By configuring “stub” feature on routers C D E and F, routers A and B will not try to transit traffic through these routers. For example, if the network connecting from routers A and B is down, router B will not send to network 10.1.1.0/24 from router B -> routerC/D/E/F -> router A -> network 10.1.1.0/24.

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QUESTION NO: 1

Which solution can defend the network by gathering global threat information from a vast sensor network and updating the product portfolio to deliver current protection?
Select exactly 1 answer (s) from the following:
A. Cisco Security Intelligence Operations
B. Cisco Data Loss Prevention
C. Cisco Virtual Office
D. Cisco Integrated Services Router
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 2
Which of the following can you use to avoid discontinuous VLANs or subnets, routing black holes, and active/active HSRP or GLBP situations?
Select exactly 1 answer(s) from the following:
A. Layer 3 point-to-point routed link
B. Cisco StackWise technology in the Cisco Catalyst 3750 family of switches
C. QoS policies
D. ARP and CAM
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 3
Which layer in the hierarchical model is known as the backbone that glues together all the elements of the campus architecture? Select exactly 1 answer(s) from the following:
A. core
B. architecture
C. access
D. distribution
Answer: A

QUESTION NO: 4

Which two of the following are high-availability design considerations? (Choose two.)
Select exactly 2 answer(s) from the following:
A. Only use HSRP and GLBP if you must.
B. Avoid asymmetric routing and unicast flooding.
C. Layer 2 and Layer 3 distribution with HSRP or GLBP is the only distribution option.
D. Use daisy-chaining stackable switches whenever possible.
E. Keep redundancy simple.
Answer: B,E
QUESTION NO: 5
You want a security solution that enforces access and policies in the borderless network by providing information such as identity, time and date, posture, location, device type, and type. Which Cisco solution provide you with this information?
Select exactly 1 answer(s) from the following:
A. Cisco Adaptive Security Appliances
B. Cisco TrustSec
C. Cisco AnyConnect
D. Cisco IronPort Web Security Appliances
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 6
What differentiates Cisco Medianet from other products?
Select exactly 1 answer(s) from the following:
A. It can focus only on the network.
B. It can integrate Cisco rich-media applications with intelligent network services.
C. It can focus only on the application.
D. It supports infrastructure service silos.
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 7
A video installation takes 60 minutes without autoconfiguration. Approximately how much time does an installation take with the Cisco Medianet autoconfiguration?
Select exactly 1 answer(s) from the following
A. 25 minutes
B. 15 minutes
C. 30 minutes
D. 20 minutes
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 8
What will Cisco CleanAir technology do if interference causes a jam on your Wi-Fi channel?
Select exactly 1 answer (s) from the following:
A. restart your service
B. shut down your network
C. change channels within 30 seconds to avoid the interference
D. automatically reconnect you on the same channel
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 9
Which Cisco EnergyWise component provides configuration, management, data aggregation, and console services for the solution?
Select exactly 1 answer(s) from the following:
A. the Cisco EnergyWise Orchestrator Sustainability Dashboard
B. the Cisco EnergyWise Orchestrator server
C. the Cisco EnergyWise Orchestrator console
D. the Cisco EnergyWise Orchestrator PC Client
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 10
Which Cisco AnyConnect component provides a firewall and secure mobility for the headend?
Select exactly 1 answer(s) from the following:
A. Cisco Integrated Services Router
B. Cisco ScanSafe
C. Cisco IronPort Web Security Appliances
D. Cisco Adaptive Security Appliances
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 11
What is a feature of Cisco OfficeExtend?
Select exactly 1 answer (s) from the following:
A. It allows users to be connected to the office on mobile devices without having to log in to the VPN.
B. It allows a user to roam securely across networks.
C. It helps to ensure that certain devices, such as a baby monitor and voice over Wi-Fi, can coexistin the wireless spectrum.
D. It extends an office phone number to a home telephone line.
Answer: A QUESTION NO: 12

What would you use to track guest provisioning and guest network use statistics, including login and logout times? Select exactly 1 answer (s) from the following:
A. Cisco ClientLink
B. Cisco Wireless Control System
C. Cisco SAFE Blueprint
D. Cisco ScanSafe
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 13
You want to enhance secure access control and data protection. Which Cisco solution will meet your needs? Select exactly 1 answer(s) from the following:
A. Cisco Application Velocity
B. Cisco Virtual Office
C. Cisco IOS Software
D. Cisco TrustSec
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 14
What are two features of Cisco EnergyWise technology? (Choose two.)
Select exactly 2 answer(s) from the following:
A. It provides a way for a thermal return to reduce power consumption.
B. It provides easy migration of third-party endpoints.
C. It allows devices to alternate between battery power and AC current.
D. It allows devices to reduce power consumption while idling.
E. It can differentiate between device type, device label, and device location.
Answer: B,E QUESTION NO: 15
What is a feature of Cisco AnyConnect?
Select exactly 1 answer(s) from the following:
A. It provides a single VPN connectivity option.
B. It provides a GRE tunnel to provide connectivity regardless of the Layer 2 protocol.
C. It provides a unified client for identity-based networking.
D. It increases mobility costs but provides a secure solution.
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 16
How do network administrators identify problem areas and locate them in the context of access point, floor, building, and campus locations?
Select exactly 1 answer(s) from the following:
A. Cisco EnergyWise Orchestrator Sustainability Dashboard
B. Air Quality Index charts
C. Cisco IronPort Web Security Appliance
D. Cisco EnergyWise
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 17
Which of the following involves studying the network at regular intervals and allowing proactive planning and designing of network modifications?
Select exactly 1 answer(s) from the following:
A. business continuance
B. baseline
C. Cisco Validated Design

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QUESTION 146
Look at the following exhibit. You have just configured OSPF on all routers in the network. You configure area 5 as an NSSA area. You redistribute the RIPv2 routes into the OSPE field on router P4S-R5. Choose two types of LSAs that will be originated by router P4S-R5. (choose two)

A. type 2 Network LSA
B. type 3 Network Summary LSA
C. type 1 Router LSA
D. type 7 NSSA External LSA

Correct Answer: CD Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 147
You are a network technician at P4S. Study this exhibit
carefully. BGP has been configured on the routers in the network. However, the IBGP peers in
autonomous system 65200 have
not converged. In addition, this console message was generated on router P4S2:
*Mar 1 03:09:07.729: %TCP-6-BADAUTH No MD5 digest from 10.10.23.2(179) to 10.10.23.3(11002)
Based on the information provided, what causes this problem?
A. OSPF must be configured with the same MD5 authentication.
B. The password that is used for BGP authentication on both BGP peers in autonomous system 65200 must be the same.
C. BGP authentication can be used on eBGP peers only.
D. BGP authentication can be used on iBGP peers when the connection is configured between the loopback interfaces.

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 148
Study the configuration presented in the exhibit carefully. What is the objective of the route map named test ?

A. marks all prefixes received from the 10.1.1.1 neighbor with a MED of 200
B. marks the 10.0.0.0/8 prefix received from the 10.1.1.1 neighbor with a MED of 200
C. marks the 10.0.0.0/8 prefix advertised to the 10.1.1.1 neighbor with a MED of 200
D. marks all prefixes advertised to the 10.1.1.1 neighbor with a MED of 200

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 149
Which two descriptions are true regarding the exhibit? (Choose two.)

A. Two routes will be installed in the routing table.
B. All six routes will be installed in the routing table.
C. All the routes were redistributed into BGP from an IGP.
D. Four routes will be installed in the routing table.

Correct Answer: CD Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 150
According to the partial configuration that is presented in the exhibit, which two statements are correct? (Choose two.)

A. The peer group shortens the IBGP configuration.
B. All the configured neighbors are in autonomous system 100.
C. Only the outgoing filters are applied to BGP updates.
D. The peer group shortens the EBGP configuration.

Correct Answer: AB Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 151
Which two statements best describe IBGP neighbor relationships? (Choose two.)
A. IBGP neighbors must be in different autonomous systems.
B. The BGP split horizon rule specifies that routes learned via IBGP are never propagated to other IBGP peers.
C. An EGP or static routing is required between IBGP neighbors.
D. A full-mesh IBGP requires that neighbor relationships be established between all BGP enabled routers in the autonomous system.

Correct Answer: BD Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 152
IBGP is the protocol used between the routers in the same
autonomous system (AS) .Which description is correct about IBGP routers?

A. They must be directly connected.
B. They must be fully meshed.
C. They can be in a different AS.
D. They do not need to be directly connected.

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 153
Which two approaches advertise internal networks to external ISPs via BGP? (Choose two.)
A. defining routes via the network statement
B. forcing the next-hop address
C. disabling synchronization
D. using aggregate routes

Correct Answer: AD Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 154
Which two statements best describe external BGP neighbor relationships? (Choose two.)
A. Static routes or an interior gateway protocol is required between EBGP neighbors.
B. EBGP neighbors use TCP port 179 to exchange BGP routing tables.
C. EBGP neighbors must be in different autonomous systems.
D. The BGP split-horizon rule specifies that routes learned via IBGP are never propagated to other EBGP peers.

Correct Answer: BC Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 155
Look at the exhibit. Configure all routers for BGP. EBGP routes received on router P4S2 show up in the BGP table on routers P4S1 and P4S3 but not in their IP routing tables. Which would be the cause of this problem?

A. EBGP multihop is not configured on routers P4S1 and P4S3.
B. Synchronization in autonomous system 100 is turned on.
C. Synchronization in autonomous system 100 is turned off.
D. Routers P4S1 and P4S3 do not receive the same routes via an IGP.

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 156
What is the reason that iBGP sessions should be fully meshed within a Transit AS?
A. A full mesh allows for optimal routing within the Transit AS.
B. Routes learned via iBGP are never propagated to other eBGP peers.
C. BGP requires redundant TCP sessions between iBGP peers.
D. Routes learned via iBGP are never propagated to other iBGP peers.

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 157
What is the meaning of the default value of the EIGRP variance command of 1?
A. Only the path that is the feasible successor should be used.
B. The router only performs equal-cost load balancing on all paths that have a metric greater than 1.
C. Load balancing is disabled on this router.
D. The router performs equal-cost load balancing.

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 158
The Border Gateway Protocol (BGP) is the core routing protocol of the Internet. Refer to the exhibit.
Routers P4SA and P4SB are running BGP but the session is active.
What command needs to be
added to establish the BGP session?
A. ip route 10.10.10.1 255.255.255.255 s0/0 ip route 10.10.10.1 255.255.255.255 s0/1
B. no synchronization
C. network 10.10.10.0
D. neighbor 10.10.10.1 next-hop-self

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 159
You work as a network engineer at P4S.Examine the exhibit carefully. What will P4S-RB do with a packet sourced from within AS 64200 with a destination address of 192.168.25.1?

A. It will be forwarded to the null 0 interface of P4S-RB and dropped.
B. It will be dropped because network 192.168.25.0 is not in the P4S-RA routing table.
C. It will be dropped because network 192.168.25.0 is not in the P4S-RB routing table.
D. It will be forwarded to the P4S-RB 192.168.25.0 network.

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 160
You work as a network technician at P4S,and study the exhibit carefully. Autonomous systems 200 and 300 have EBGP sessions established with their directly connected routers in autonomous system 100. IGP has been configured on all routers in autonomous system 100 and they successfully exchange routing updates. Traffic originated in autonomous system 200 cannot reach the destination autonomous system 300. What configuration should be done on the routers in autonomous system 100 in order for the traffic coming from autonomous system 200 to be forwarded to autonomous system 300?

A. IBGP session must be established between routers P4S1 and P4S3, and the synchronization must be
turned off.
B. IBGP session must be established between routers P4S1 , P4S2 and P4S2 , P4S3, and the synchronization must be turned on.
C. IBGP session must be established between routers P4S1 and P4S3, and the synchronization must be turned on.
D. IBGP speakers within autonomous 100 must be fully meshed, and the synchronization must be turned off.

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 161
You are a network technician.Study the exhibit carefully. Router RTR is attempting to build up BGP neighbor relationships with routers RT1 and RT3. Based on the information presented in this exhibit, which two statements are correct? (Choose two.)

A. RTR has a BGP password set but neighbor 10.0.0.5 has an incorrect password set.
B. RTR has a BGP password set but neighbor 10.0.0.1 has an incorrect password set.
C. RTR has a BGP password set but neighbor 10.0.0.5 does not.
D. RTR has a BGP password set but neighbor 10.0.0.1 does not.

Correct Answer: AD Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 162
You work as a network engineer at P4S.Refer to the
exhibit. Which statement accurately describes the 6.6.6.0/24 prefix?
A. Route 6.6.6.0/24 is learned by an IBGP peer.
B. The command neighbor send-community is configured on BGP neighbor 10.10.23.3.
C. The route 10.10.23.3 is not being advertised to other BGP neighbors.
D. If another path advertises the 6.6.6.0/24 path and has the default local preference, that path is more preferred.

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 163
Which is the right order of the BGP attributes used for determining a route?
1.
Weight

2.
MED

3.
AS_Path

4.
Originate route

5.
Local preference
A. 1st
II. 2nd
III. 3rd
IV. 4th
B. 5th
C. 5, 1, 4, 3, 2
D. 1, 5, 4, 3, 2
E. 2, 3, 1, 5, 4
F. 4, 3, 2, 1, 5

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 164
Examine the following statements carefully .A router is running BGP and receives more than one route for
a particular prefix. Assume that all the routes for this prefix have the same attributes.
Which three path features would be reasons for the router to ignore some of the routes and does not
consider them as candidates for the best path? (Choose three.)

A. paths that are marked as synchronized in the show ip bgp output
B. paths for which the NEXT_HOP is inaccessible
C. paths that are marked as not synchronized in the show ip bgp output
D. paths from an external BGP (eBGP) neighbor if the local autonomous system (AS) appears in the AS_PATH
Correct Answer: BCD Section: (none) Explanation

QUESTION 165
Look at the following exhibit. Presume an IGP is correctly operating inside AS64192. As to BGP operation in AS64192, which two of the following statements are true? (Choose two)

A. P4S-RT2 used the BGP command neighbor 192.168.33.1 ebgp-multihop
B. P4S-RT1 used the BGP command neighbor 192.168.33.1 remote-as 64192
C. P4S-RT2 used the BGP command neighbor 192.168.33.1 remote-as 64192
D. PS4-RT2 used the BGP command update-source loopback 0

Correct Answer: CD Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 166
Topic – Implement multicast forwarding. ?.§53 Questions??
Describe IP Multicast (e.g., Layer-3 to Layer-2 mapping, IGMP, etc.).
Describe, configure, or verify IP multicast routing (i.e., PIM Sparse-Dense Mode).

A.
B.
C.
D.

Correct Answer: Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 167
In computer networking ,a multicast address is an identifier for a group of hosts that have joined a multicast group. Multicast addressing can be used in the Link Layer (OSI Layer 2), such as Ethernet Multicast, as well as at the Internet Layer (OSI Layer 3) as IPv4 or IPv6 Multicast. Which two descriptions are correct regarding multicast addressing?
A. The last 3 bytes (24 bits) of the multicast MAC address are 0x01-00-5E. This is a reserved value that indicates a multicast application.
B. To calculate the Layer 2 multicast address, the host maps the last 23 bits of the IP address into the last 24 bits of the MAC address. The high-order bit is set to 0.
C. The first 23 bits of the multicast MAC address are 0x01-00-5E. This is a reserved value that indicates a multicast application.
D. The first 3 bytes (24 bits) of the multicast MAC address are 0x01-00-5E. This is a reserved value that indicates a multicast application.

Correct Answer: BD Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 168
On the basis of the partial configuration for Router A: interface serial 0 ip address 10.1.1.1 255.255.255.0 encapsulation frame-relay ip ospf network point-to-multipoint router ospf 7 network 10.1.1.0 0.0.0.255 area 0 Which two descriptions are true? (Choose two.)
A. OSPF neighbor statements are not necessary.
B. The area 0 NBMA cloud is configured as more than one subnet.
C. The router is restricted to a hub and spoke topology.
D. DR/BDR elections do not take place.

Correct Answer: AD Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 169
Which one of the following commands enables a multicast routing protocol on an IOS device?
A. (config-if)#multicast address {IP-address}
B. (config)#ip multicast routing
C. (config-if)#ip pim {dense-mode | sparse-dense-mode | sparsemode}
D. (config)#ip pim send-rp-announce {interface type} scope {ttl} group-list {acl}

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 170
You work as a network engineer at P4S.Study the exhibit carefully. A P4S network administrator consoles into the P4S-SW1 switch and attempts to save the switch configuration to the TFTP server that is located at IP address 10.1.2.10/24. However, whenever the copy running-config tftp command is issued with default options on switch P4S-SW1, an error is produced.
Which configuration would correct this situation?

A. P4S-SW1 (config)# interface range fastethernet 0/1 – 24 P4S-SW1 (config-if-range)# ip forward-protocol udp 69
B. P4S-R(config)# interface fastethernet0/0 P4S-R (config-if)# ip forward-protocol udp 69
C. P4S-R (config)# interface fastethernet0/1 P4S-R (config-if)# ip forward-protocol udp 69
D. P4S-R (config)# interface fastethernet0/0 P4S-R (config-if)# ip helper-address 10.1.2.10

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 171
In order to enable multicast routing on an IOS device , which command should be used?
A. (config)#ip multicast-routing
B. (config-if)#ip pim {dense-mode | sparse-dense-mode | sparsemode}
C. (config-if)#multicast address {ip-address}
D. (config)#ip pim send-rp-announce {interface type} {scope ttl} {group-list acl}

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 172
Rendezvous points are configured with an access list. Which objective will this list reach?
A. Restricting source addresses that use the RP
B. Restricting users that use the RP
C. Restricting routers that use the RP
D. Limiting multicast IP addresses that use the RP

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation QUESTION 173
Which two situations would require using multiple routing protocols? (Choose two)
A. when using UNIX host-based routers
B. because having multiple routing protocols confuses hackers
C. when smaller broadcast domains are desired
D. when migrating from an older Interior Gateway Protocol (IGP) to a new IGP

Correct Answer: AD Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 174
Examine the following options ,Multicasting supports applications that communicate:
A. many-to-many
B. one-to-many
C. many-to-one
D. one-to-one

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 175
Which command will show the multicast groups used?
A. show multicast router
B. show multicast group
C. show igmp interface
D. ip igmp snooping

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 176
Which option is not a capability of UDP multicast?
A. Limiting receivers
B. Retransmission
C. Dynamic membership
D. Packet ordering

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 177
IGMPv1 does not have a mechanism to allow a host to leave a group when it is no longer interested in the content of that group. Based on the following statements, which is an advantage of IGMPv3 over version 2?
A. Leaves
B. Joins
C. Group-specific queries
D. Source Filtering

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 178
For the following MAC addresses, which will 224.1.2.3 correspond to ?
A. e000.0001.0203
B. 0100.5e01.0203
C. 1000.5e01.0203
D. 0102.0300.0000

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 179
Which two Cisco IOS commands can be used to view neighbor adjacencies? (Choose two.)
A. show ip ospf protocols
B. show ip ospf interfaces
C. show ip ospf database
D. show ip ospf neighbors

Correct Answer: BD Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 180
Which description is correct concerning the router operation when the command ip pim sparse-mode is used?
A. The (S,G) state exists in every router, regardless of the presence of an RPF interface.
B. When a port is pruned, the administrator must re-enable the port to support multicast traffic.
C. Flooding of traffic only occurs in the beginning stages of routing. Afterward, all necessary ports are pruned and multicast traffic is not sent across those interfaces.
D. Group members are joined to the shared tree by their local designated router.

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
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QUESTION 56
Certkiller .com has a 15kw load requirement and wants a solution that will provide redundancy and room to
expand.
Which solution provides enough capacity for a 15kw load and N+1 internal redundancy?

A. Symmetra PX with two power modules
B. Symmetra PX with three power modules
C. Symmetra Rack Mount with four power modules
D. Symmetra Rack Mount with three power modules
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 57
Exhibit:

Which diagram provides the best method of cooling the rack enclosures utilizing the Computer Room Air Conditioner (CRAC)?
B. II
C. III
D. IV

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 58
In an InfraStruxure solution, what is the benefit of having two Main Intelligence Modules (MIMs)?
A. high available design
B. cleaner UPS output voltage
C. remote management of the UPS
D. integrated monitoring of distribution breakers

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 59
Exhibit:

What type of system is shown?
A. air cooled
B. water cooled
C. glycol cooled
D. remote condensing

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 60
A data center has raised-floor air distribution. The equipment racks are aligned in rows facing each other.
An analysis of the power consumption and the installed air conditioners indicates there is plenty of cooling
capacity. However, there are still hot spots in some parts of the room.
Which two solutions will alleviate the hot spot? (choose two)

A. Placing return air vents in the space between the backs of the racks to collect hot air
B. Placing more perforated floor tiles in the space between the backs of the racks to cool the hot equipment exhaust
C. Eliminating all perforated floor tiles in the space between the backs of the racks to keep the cool supply air from mixing with the hot exhaust air
D. Placing return air vents in the space between the fronts of the racks to draw air away from the cooler areas so it can be supplied to the warmer areas.

Correct Answer: AC QUESTION 61
Exhibit:

Which UPS topology is shown in the exhibit?
A. standby
B. line interactive
C. standby online hybrid
D. online double conversion

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 62
What is the advantage of a full enclosure over 2-Post or 4-Post open-frame solutions?
A. cost
B. weight
C. security
D. accessibility

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 63
A small company is breaking ground on a new building that will have a computer room. They will start with
30kw of load and double that capacity over the next five years.
What is the most available and flexible power solution?

A. a single-module 80KW three-phase UPS
B. two 80KW single-module three-phase UPSs operating in a parallel redundant configuration
C. an Infrastruxure solution with a symmetra 80kw N+1 UPS, initially populated with 4 power modules to provide 30kw N+1 redundancy
D. a single-module three-phase 40kw with a bypass panel that has room for two 40kw UPSs, which will allow for expansion in the future

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 64
Certkiller .com has a 15kw load requirement and wants a solution that will provide redundancy and room to
expand.
Which solution provides enough capacity for a 15kw load and N+1 internal redundancy?

A. Symmetra PX with two power modules
B. Symmetra PX with three power modules
C. Symmetra Rack Mount with four power modules
D. Symmetra Rack Mount with three power modules Correct Answer: B

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Exam A QUESTION 1
Refer to the exhibit.

Why has this switch not been elected the root bridge for VLAN1?
A. It has more than one interface that is connected to the root network segment.
B. It is running RSTP while the elected root bridge is running 802.1d spanning tree.
C. It has a higher MAC address than the elected root bridge.
D. It has a higher bridge ID than the elected root bridge.

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 2
Refer to the exhibit . Which switch provides the spanning-tree designated port role for the network segment that services the printers?

A. Switch1
B. Switch2
C. Switch3
D. Switch4

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 3
Refer to the exhibit.

At the end of an RSTP election process, which access layer switch port will assume the discarding role? A. Switch3, port fa0/1
B. Switch3, port fa0/12
C. Switch4, port fa0/11
D. Switch4, port fa0/2
E. Switch3, port Gi0/1
F. Switch3, port Gi0/2

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 4
Refer to the exhibit.

Given the output shown from this Cisco Catalyst 2950, what is the reasons that interface FastEthernet 0/10 is not the root port for VLAN 2?
A. This switch has more than one interface connected to the root network segment in VLAN 2.
B. This switch is running RSTP while the elected designated switch is running 802.1d Spanning Tree.
C. This switch interface has a higher path cost to the root bridge than another in the topology.
D. This switch has a lower bridge ID for VLAN 2 than the elected designated switch.

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 5
Which two of these statements regarding RSTP are correct? (Choose two.)
A. RSTP cannot operate with PVST+.
B. RSTP defines new port roles.
C. RSTP defines no new port states.
D. RSTP is a proprietary implementation of IEEE 802.1D STP.
E. RSTP is compatible with the original IEEE 802.1D STP.

Correct Answer: BE
QUESTION 6
Refer to the exhibit.

Each of these four switches has been configured with a hostname, as well as being configured to run RSTP. No other configuration changes have been made. Which three of these show the correct RSTP port roles for the indicated switches and interfaces? (Choose three.)
A. SwitchA, Fa0/2, designated
B. SwitchA, Fa0/1, root
C. SwitchB, Gi0/2, root
D. SwitchB, Gi0/1, designated
E. SwitchC, Fa0/2, root
F. SwitchD, Gi0/2, root

Correct Answer: ABF
QUESTION 7
Which port state is introduced by Rapid-PVST?
A. learning
B. listening
C. discarding
D. forwarding

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 8
Which two states are the port states when RSTP has converged? (Choose two.)
A. discarding
B. listening
C. learning
D. forwarding
E. disabled
Correct Answer: AD
QUESTION 9
Which three statements about RSTP are true? (Choose three.)
A. RSTP significantly reduces topology reconverging time after a link failure.
B. RSTP expands the STP port roles by adding the alternate and backup roles.
C. RSTP port states are blocking, discarding, learning, or forwarding.
D. RSTP provides a faster transition to the forwarding state on point-to-point links than STP does.
E. RSTP also uses the STP proposal-agreement sequence.
F. RSTP uses the same timer-based process as STP on point-to-point links.

Correct Answer: ABD
QUESTION 10
At which layer of the OSI model is RSTP used to prevent loops?
A. physical
B. data link
C. network
D. transport

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 11
What is one benefit of PVST+?
A. PVST+ supports Layer 3 load balancing without loops.
B. PVST+ reduces the CPU cycles for all the switches in the network.
C. PVST+ allows the root switch location to be optimized per VLAN.
D. PVST+ automatically selects the root bridge location, to provide optimized bandwidth usage.

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 12
What are three characteristics of the OSPF routing protocol? (Choose three.)
A. It converges quickly.
B. OSPF is a classful routing protocol.
C. It uses cost to determine the best route.
D. It uses the DUAL algorithm to determine the best route.
E. OSPF routers send the complete routing table to all directly attached routers.
F. OSPF routers discover neighbors before exchanging routing information.
Correct Answer: ACF
QUESTION 13
Which statement is true, as relates to classful or classless routing?
A. Classful routing protocols send the subnet mask in routing updates.
B. RIPv1 and OSPF are classless routing protocols.
C. Automatic summarization at classful boundaries can cause problems on discontiguous subnets.
D. EIGRP and OSPF are classful routing protocols and summarize routes by default.
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 14
Which parameter or parameters are used to calculate OSPF cost in Cisco routers?
A. Bandwidth
B. Bandwidth and Delay C. Bandwidth, Delay, and MTU
D. Bandwidth, MTU, Reliability, Delay, and Load

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 15
Which statements are true about EIGRP successor routes? (Choose two.)
A. A successor route is used by EIGRP to forward traffic to a destination.
B. Successor routes are saved in the topology table to be used if the primary route fails.
C. Successor routes are flagged as ‘active’ in the routing table.
D. A successor route may be backed up by a feasible successor route.
E. Successor routes are stored in the neighbor table following the discovery process.

Correct Answer: AD QUESTION 16
Refer to the exhibit.

The network associate is configuring OSPF on the Core router. All the connections to the branches should be participating in OSPF. The link to the ISP should NOT participate in OSPF and should only be advertised as the default route. What set of commands will properly configure the Core router?
A. Core(config-router)# default-information originate Core(config-router)# network 10.0.0.0 0.255.255.255 area 0 Core(config-router)# exit Core(config)# ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 10.10.2.14
B. Core(config-router)# default-information originate Core(config-router)# network 10.10.2.13 0.0.0.242 area 0 Core(config-router)# exit Core(config)# ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 10.10.2.14
C. Core(config-router)# default-information originate Core(config-router)# network 10.10.2.16 0.0.0.15 area 0 Core(config-router)# exit Core(config)# ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 10.10.2.14
D. Core(config-router)# default-information originate Core(config-router)# network 10.10.2.32 0.0.0.31 area 0 Core(config-router)# exit Core(config)# ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 10.10.2.14

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 17
Refer to the exhibit.

Which two statements are true about the loopback address that is configured on RouterB? (Choose two.)
A. It ensures that data will be forwarded by RouterB.
B. It provides stability for the OSPF process on RouterB.
C. It specifies that the router ID for RouterB should be 10.0.0.1.
D. It decreases the metric for routes that are advertised from RouterB.
E. It indicates that RouterB should be elected the DR for the LAN.

Correct Answer: BC
QUESTION 18
What is the default maximum number of equal-cost paths that can be placed into the routing table of a Cisco OSPF router?
A. 2
B. 4
C. 16
D. unlimited

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 19
Which parameter would you tune to affect the selection of a static route as a backup, when a dynamic protocol is also being used?
A. hop count
B. administrative distance
C. link bandwidth
D. link delay
E. link cost
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 20
What are two drawbacks of implementing a link-state routing protocol? (Choose two.)
A. the sequencing and acknowledgment of link-state packets
B. the requirement for a hierarchical IP addressing scheme for optimal functionality
C. the high volume of link-state advertisements in a converged network
D. the high demand on router resources to run the link-state routing algorithm
E. the large size of the topology table listing all advertised routes in the converged network

Correct Answer: BD
QUESTION 21
Which two are advantages of static routing when compared to dynamic routing? (Choose two.)
A. Configuration complexity decreases as network size increases.
B. Security increases because only the network administrator may change the routing table.
C. Route summarization is computed automatically by the router.
D. Routing tables adapt automatically to topology changes.
E. An efficient algorithm is used to build routing tables, using automatic updates.
F. Routing updates are automatically sent to neighbors.
G. Routing traffic load is reduced when used in stub network links.

Correct Answer: BG
QUESTION 22
Which command enables IPv6 forwarding on a Cisco router?
A. ipv6 local
B. ipv6 host
C. ipv6 unicast-routing
D. ipv6 neighbor

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 23
A router is running three routing processes: RIP, OSPF, and EIGRP, each configured with default characteristics. Each process learns a route to the same remote network. If there are no static routes to the destination and none of the routes were redistributed, which route will be placed in the IP routing table?
A. the route learned through EIGRP
B. the route learned through OSPF
C. the route learned through RIP
D. the route with the lowest metric
E. all three routes with the router load balancing
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 24
Refer to the exhibit.

Given the output for this command, if the router ID has not been manually set, what router ID will OSPF use for this router?
A. 10.1.1.2
B. 10.154.154.1
C. 172.16.5.1
D. 192.168.5.3

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 25
The internetwork infrastructure of company XYZ consists of a single OSPF area as shown in the graphic. There is concern that a lack of router resources is impeding internetwork performance. As part of examining the router resources, the OSPF DRs need to be known. All the router OSPF priorities are at the default and the router IDs are shown with each router.

Which routers are likely to have been elected as DR? (Choose two.)
A. Corp-1
B. Corp-2
C. Corp-3
D. Corp-4
E. Branch-1
F. Branch-2

Correct Answer: DF
QUESTION 26
What does a router do if it has no EIGRP feasible successor route to a destination network and the successor route to that destination network is in active status?
A. It routes all traffic that is addressed to the destination network to the interface indicated in the routing table.
B. It sends a copy of its neighbor table to all adjacent routers.
C. It sends a multicast query packet to all adjacent neighbors requesting available routing paths to the destination network.
D. It broadcasts Hello packets to all routers in the network to re-establish neighbor adjacencies.

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 27
Refer to the exhibit.

The network is converged. After link-state advertisements are received from Router_A, what information will Router_E contain in its routing table for the subnets 208.149.23.64 and 208.149.23.96?
A. O 208.149.23.64 [110/13] via 190.173.23.10, 00:00:07, FastEthernet 0/0 O 208.149.23.96 [110/13] via 190.173.23.10, 00:00:16, FastEthernet 0/0
B. O 208.149.23.64 [110/1] via 190.172.23.10, 00:00:07, Serial 1/0 O 208.149.23.96 [110/3] via 190.173.23.10, 00:00:16, FastEthernet 0/0
C. O 208.149.23.64 [110/13] via 190.172.23.10, 00:00:07, Serial 1/0 O 208.149.23.96 [110/13] via 190.172.23.10, 00:00:16, Serial 1/0 O 208.149.23.96 [110/13] via 190.173.23.10, 00:00:16, FastEthernet 0/0
D. O 208.149.23.64 [110/3] via 190.172.23.10, 00:00:07, Serial 1/0 O 208.149.23.96 [110/3] via 190.172.23.10, 00:00:16, Serial 1/0

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 28
Which command is used to display the collection of OSPF link states?
A. show ip ospf link-state
B. show ip ospf lsa database
C. show ip ospf neighbors
D. show ip ospf database
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 29
What is the default administrative distance of OSPF?
A. 90
B. 100
C. 110
D. 120

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 30
The following configuration is applied to a Layer 2 Switch: interface fastethernet 0/4 switchport mode access switchport port-security switchport port-security mac-address 0000.1111.1111 switchport port-security maximum 2 swithcport port-security What is the result of the above configuration being applied to the switch?
A. A host with a mac address of 0000.1111.1111 and up to two other hosts can connect to FastEthernet 0/4 simultaneously
B. A host with a mac address of 0000.1111.1111 and one other host can connect to Fast Ethernet 0/4 simultaneously
C. Violating addresses are dropped and no record of the violation is kept
D. The switch can send an SNMP message to the network management station
E. The port is effectively shutdown

Correct Answer: BD
QUESTION 31
Refer to the exhibit.

Which of these correctly describes the results of port security violation of an unknown packet?
A. port enabled; unknown packets dropped; no SNMP or syslog messages
B. port enabled; unknown packets dropped; SNMP or syslog messages
C. port disabled; no SNMP or syslog messages
D. port disabled; SNMP or syslog messages

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 32
Refer to the exhibit.

What three actions will the switch take when a frame with an unknown source MAC address arrives at the interface? (Select three.)
A. Send an SNMP trap.
B. Send a syslog message.
C. Increment the Security Violation counter.
D. Forward the traffic.
E. Write the MAC address to the startup-config.
F. Shut down the port.

Correct Answer: ABC
QUESTION 33
A technician pastes the configurations in the exhibit into the two new routers shown. Otherwise, the routers are configured with their default configurations. A ping from Host1 to Host2 fails, but the technician is able to ping the S0/0 interface of R2 from Host1. The configurations of the hosts have been verified as correct. What is the cause of the problem?
A. The serial cable on R1 needs to be replaced.
B. The interfaces on R2 are not configured properly.
C. R1 has no route to the 192.168.1.128 network.
D. The IP addressing scheme has overlapping subnetworks.
E. The ip subnet-zero command must be configured on both routers.
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 34
What does the frame-relay interface-dlci command configure?
A. local DLCI on the subinterface
B. remote DLCI on the main interface
C. remote DCLI on the subinterface
D. local DLCI on the main interface
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 35
What can be done to secure the virtual terminal interfaces on a router? (Choose two.)
A. Administratively shut down the interface.
B. Physically secure the interface.
C. Create an access list and apply it to the virtual terminal interfaces with the access-group command.
D. Configure a virtual terminal password and login process.
E. Enter an access list and apply it to the virtual terminal interfaces using the access-class command.

Correct Answer: DE
QUESTION 36
Refer to the exhibit.

Based on the exhibited routing table, how will packets from a host within the 192.168.10.192/26 LAN be forwarded to 192.168.10.1?
A. The router will forward packets from R3 to R2 to R1.
B. The router will forward packets from R3 to R1 to R2.
C. The router will forward packets from R3 to R2 to R1 AND from R3 to R1.
D. The router will forward packets from R3 to R1.

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 37
Refer to the exhibit.

What information about the interfaces on the Main_Campus router is true?
A. The LAN interfaces are configured on different subnets.
B. Interface FastEthernet 0/0 is configured as a trunk.
C. The Layer 2 protocol of interface Serial 0/1 is NOT operational.
D. The router is a modular router with five FastEthernet interfaces.
E. Interface FastEthernet 0/0 is administratively deactivated.

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 38
Refer to the exhibit.

C-router is to be used as a “router-on-a-stick” to route between the VLANs. All the interfaces have been properly configured and IP routing is operational. The hosts in the VLANs have been configured with the appropriate default gateway. What is true about this configuration?
A. These commands need to be added to the configuration: C-router(config)# router eigrp 123 C-router(config-router)# network 172.19.0.0
B. These commands need to be added to the configuration: C-router(config)# router ospf 1 C-router(config-router)# network 172.19.0.0 0.0.3.255 area 0
C. These commands need to be added to the configuration: C-router(config)# router rip C-router(config-router)# network 172.19.0.0
D. No further routing configuration is required.

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 39
Refer to the exhibit.

Assume that all router interfaces are operational and correctly configured. In addition, assume that OSPF has been correctly configured on router R2. How will the default route configured on R1 affect the operation of R2?
A. Any packet destined for a network that is not directly connected to router R1 will be dropped.
B. Any packet destined for a network that is not directly connected to router R2 will be dropped immediately.
C. Any packet destined for a network that is not directly connected to router R2 will be dropped immediately because of the lack of a gateway on R1.
D. The networks directly connected to router R2 will not be able to communicate with the 172.16.100.0, 172.16.100.128, and 172.16.100.64 subnetworks.
E. Any packet destined for a network that is not referenced in the routing table of router R2 will be directed to R1. R1 will then send that packet back to R2 and a routing loop will occur.
Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 40
Refer to the exhibit.

Assume that all of the router interfaces are operational and configured correctly. How will router R2 be affected by the configuration of R1 that is shown in the exhibit?
A. Router R2 will not form a neighbor relationship with R1.
B. Router R2 will obtain a full routing table, including a default route, from R1.
C. R2 will obtain OSPF updates from R1, but will not obtain a default route from R1.
D. R2 will not have a route for the directly connected serial network, but all other directly connected networks will be present, as well as the two Ethernet networks connected to R1.

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 41
Refer to the exhibit.

The show interfaces serial 0/1 command was issued on the R10-1 router. Based on the output displayed which statement is correct?
A. The cable connected to the serial 0/1 interface of the R10-1 router is a DTE cable.
B. The R10-1 router can ping the router interface connected to the serial 0/1 interface.
C. The clock rate used for interface serial 0/1 of the R10-1 router is 1,544,000 bits per second.
D. The CSU used with the serial 0/1 interface of the R10-1 router has lost connection to the service provider.
E. The interface of the remote router connected to the serial 0/1 interface of the R10-1 router is using the default serial interface encapsulation.

Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 42
Refer to the exhibit.

RTA is configured with a basic configuration. The link between the two routers is operational and no routing protocols are configured on either router. The line shown in the exhibit is then added to router RTA . Should interface Fa0/0 on router RTB shut down, what effect will the shutdown have on router RTA?
A. A route to 172.16.14.0/24 will remain in the RTA routing table.
B. A packet to host 172.16.14.225 will be dropped by router RTA
C. Router RTA will send an ICMP packet to attempt to verify the route.
D. Because router RTB will send a poison reverse packet to router RTA, RTA will remove the route.

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 43
Which three statements are typical characteristics of VLAN arrangements? (Choose three.)
A. A new switch has no VLANs configured.
B. Connectivity between VLANs requires a Layer 3 device.
C. VLANs typically decrease the number of collision domains.
D. Each VLAN uses a separate address space.
E. A switch maintains a separate bridging table for each VLAN.
F. VLANs cannot span multiple switches.

Correct Answer: BDE
QUESTION 44
The output of the show frame-relay pvc command shows “PVC STATUS = INACTIVE”. What does this mean?
A. The PVC is configured correctly and is operating normally, but no data packets have been detected for more than five minutes.
B. The PVC is configured correctly, is operating normally, and is no longer actively seeking the address of the remote router.
C. The PVC is configured correctly, is operating normally, and is waiting for interesting traffic to trigger a call to the remote router.
D. The PVC is configured correctly on the local switch, but there is a problem on the remote end of the PVC
E. The PVC is not configured on the local switch.

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 45
Refer to the exhibit.

Hosts in network 192.168.2.0 are unable to reach hosts in network 192.168.3.0. Based on the output from RouterA, what are two possible reasons for the failure? (Choose two.)
A. The cable that is connected to S0/0 on RouterA is faulty.
B. Interface S0/0 on RouterB is administratively down.
C. Interface S0/0 on RouterA is configured with an incorrect subnet mask.
D. The IP address that is configured on S0/0 of RouterB is not in the correct subnet.
E. Interface S0/0 on RouterA is not receiving a clock signal from the CSU/DSU.
F. The encapsulation that is configured on S0/0 of RouterB does not match the encapsulation that is configured on S0/0 of RouterA

Correct Answer: EF
QUESTION 46
Refer to the exhibit.

The output that is shown is generated at a switch. Which three statements are true? (Choose three.)
A. All ports will be in a state of discarding, learning, or forwarding.
B. Thirty VLANs have been configured on this switch.
C. The bridge priority is lower than the default value for spanning tree.
D. All interfaces that are shown are on shared media.
E. All designated ports are in a forwarding state.
F. This switch must be the root bridge for all VLANs on this switch.

Correct Answer: ACE
QUESTION 47
Refer to the exhibit.

When running EIGRP, what is required for RouterA to exchange routing updates with RouterC?
A. AS numbers must be changed to match on all the routers
B. Loopback interfaces must be configured so a DR is elected
C. The no auto-summary command is needed on Router A and Router C
D. Router B needs to have two network statements, one for each connected network

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 48
Which term describes a spanning-tree network that has all switch ports in either the blocking or fowarding state?
A. converged
B. redundant
C. provisioned
D. spanned

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 49
What command is used to verify the DLCI destination address in a Frame Relay static configuration?
A. show frame-relay pvc
B. show frame-relay lmi
C. show frame-relay map
D. show frame relay end-to-end

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 50
Refer to the exhibit.

A technician has configured the FastEthernet 0/1 interface on Sw11 as an access link in VLAN 1. Based on the output from the show vlan brief command issued on Sw12, what will be the result of making this change on Sw11?
A. Only the hosts in VLAN 1 on the two switches will be able to communicate with each other.
B. The hosts in all VLANs on the two switches will be able to communicate with each other.
C. Only the hosts in VLAN 10 and VLAN 15 on the two switches will be able to communicate with each other.
D. Hosts will not be able to communicate between the two switches.

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 51
Refer to the exhibit.

What commands must be configured on the 2950 switch and the router to allow communication between host 1 and host 2? (Choose two.)
A. Router(config)# interface fastethernet 0/0 Router(config-if)# ip address 192.168.1.1 255.255.255.0 Router(config-if)# no shut down
B. Router(config)# interface fastethernet 0/0 Router(config-if)# no shut down Router(config)# interface fastethernet 0/0.1 Router(config-subif)# encapsulation dot1q 10 Router(config-subif)# ip address 192.168.10.1 255.255.255.0 Router(config)# interface fastethernet 0/0.2 Router(config-subif)# encapsulation dot1q 20 Router(config-subif)# ip address 192.168.20.1 255.255.255.0
C. Router(config)# router eigrp 100 Router(config-router)# network 192.168.10.0 Router(config-router)# network 192.168.20.0
D. Switch1(config)# vlan database Switch1(config-vlan)# vtp domain XYZ Switch1(config-vlan)# vtp server
E. Switch1(config)# interface fastethernet 0/1 Switch1(config-if)# switchport mode trunk
F. Switch1(config)# interface vlan 1 Switch1(config-if)# ip default-gateway 192.168.1.1
Correct Answer: BE
QUESTION 52
Refer to the exhibit.

How will the router handle a packet destined for 192.0.2.156?
A. The router will drop the packet.
B. The router will return the packet to its source.
C. The router will forward the packet via Serial2.
D. The router will forward the packet via either Serial0 or Serial1.

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 53
Refer to the exhibit.

Which two statements are true about interVLAN routing in the topology that is shown in the exhibit? (Choose two.)
A. Host E and host F use the same IP gateway address.
B. Router1 and Switch2 should be connected via a crossover cable.
C. Router1 will not play a role in communications between host A and host D.
D. The FastEthernet 0/0 interface on Router1 must be configured with subinterfaces.
E. Router1 needs more LAN interfaces to accommodate the VLANs that are shown in the exhibit.
F. The FastEthernet 0/0 interface on Router1 and the FastEthernet 0/1 interface on Switch2 trunk ports must be configured using the same encapsulation type.

Correct Answer: DF
QUESTION 54
What is the advantage of using a multipoint interface instead of point-to-point subinterfaces when configuring a Frame Relay hub in a hub-and-spoke topology?
A. It avoids split-horizon issues with distance vector routing protocols.
B. IP addresses can be conserved if VLSM is not being used for subnetting.
C. A multipoint interface offers greater security compared to point-to-point subinterface configurations.
D. The multiple IP network addresses required for a multipoint interface provide greater addressing flexibility over point-to-point configurations.

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 55
Which two statistics appear in show frame-relay map output? (Choose two.)
A. the number of BECN packets that are received by the router
B. the value of the local DLCI
C. the number of FECN packets that are received by the router
D. the status of the PVC that is configured on the router
E. the IP address of the local router

Correct Answer: BD

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QUESTION 60
You have an RGB image open.In the Layers panel, you have added a Curves adjustment layer above your
image layer, but you would like to limit this adjustment to only the yellow tones of the image.
What should you do?

A. Adjust only the Blue curve in the Adjustments panel.
B. Select the adjustment layer s mask in the Layers panel, and use the Masks panel s Color Range option.
C. Add a Selective Color adjustment layer, and link it to the Curves adjustment layer.
D. Copy the yellow channel in the Channels panel, and paste it into the Curves adjustment layer mask.

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 61
You added a Levels adjustment layer and experimented with different settings. Now you want to start over
again with the default settings.
What should you do?

A. Click the Auto button in the Adjustments panel.
B. Choose Reset Levels from the Adjustments panel menu.
C. Choose Reset Styles from the Styles panel menu.
D. Click the Previous State icon in the Adjustments panel.
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 62
Click the Exhibit button.

You want to lighten and bring out detail in the dark statue in this photograph without making the sky too light. You add a Curves adjustment layer and set an anchor point on the curve to protect the highlights. What should you do next?
A. Select the On-image Adjustment tool in the Adjustments panel. Then click on a dark tone in the statue and drag vertically.
B. Select the Black Eyedropper tool in the Adjustments panel. Then click on a dark tone in the statue and drag vertically.
C. Select the Gray Eyedropper tool in the Adjustments panel. Then click on a dark tone in the statue and drag horizontally.
D. Select the White Eyedropper tool in the Adjustments panel. Then hold the Alt key (Windows) or Option key (Mac OS) as you click on a dark tone in the statue and drag horizontally.

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 63
You create a Hue/Saturation adjustment layer, and want to adjust the hue of a color in the image. After you choose the On-image adjustment tool in the Adjustments panel, what should you do?
A. Click on the color in the image, and drag up or down.
B. Click on the color in the image, and drag left or right. 15 / 28 The safer , easier way to help you pass any IT exams.
C. Alt-click (Windows) or Option-click (Mac OS) on the color in the image, and drag left or right.
D. Ctrl-click (Windows) or Command-click (Mac OS) on the color in the image, and drag left or right.

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 64
You want to convert a photograph to grayscale. When you choose Image > Mode > Grayscale, the
different areas of the image appear too similar in tone.
Which method should you use to get better results?

A. Add a Black & White adjustment layer.
B. Use Hue/Saturation or Curves to adjust the image s color range before converting to grayscale.
C. Choose Image > Adjustments > Desaturate.
D. Choose Filter > Convert for Smart Filters before converting to grayscale.

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 65
You have a color image that you want to convert to grayscale. You would like to use a Black & White
adjustment layer to accomplish that, but it is unavailable in the Adjustments panel.
What might be the cause of that?

A. The image is in CMYK mode.
B. The currently selected layer is a shape layer.
C. The currently selected layer is a type layer.
D. The image is in 16 Bits/Channel mode.

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 66
What does the Photomerge feature use to blend multiple photographs into a multi-layered panorama?
A. Layer masks
B. Adjustment layers
C. Layer blending modes
D. Layer comps

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 67
You are trying to merge photos into a panorama, but Photomerge is having trouble aligning your photos. What amount of overlap is optimal when shooting photographs for Photomerge to best align them?
A. About 10%
B. About 25%
C. About 40%
D. About 70%

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 68
You are adjusting a combined HDR image in the Merge to HDR Pro dialog box, using the Local Adaptation tone-mapping method. You want to add contrast between the shadow and highlight areas of the image. Which control should you adjust?
A. The Gamma slider
B. The Exposure slider 16 / 28 The safer , easier way to help you pass any IT exams.
C. The Vibrance slider
D. The Radius slider

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 69
Which lens-related errors can be corrected in the Auto Correction tab of the Lens Correction filter?
A. Geometric Distortion, Chromatic Aberration, and Vignette
B. Lens flare, Geometric Distortion, and Chromatic Aberration
C. Lens flare, Chromatic Aberration, and Vignette
D. Dust spots, Geometric Distortion, and Vignette

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 70
Why might you want to adjust vignetting in the Custom tab of the Lens Correction filter? (Choose two.)
A. To draw the viewers attention to the center of a photograph.
B. To reduce the dark corners in a photograph shot with a wide-angle lens.
C. To increase the contrast from dark to light vertically (top to bottom) or horizontally (left to right) in the image.
D. To correct vertical or horizontal perspective in a photograph.
E. To apply a radial gradient that frames the subject of a photograph.

Correct Answer: AB
QUESTION 71
You have a photograph open and have opened the Basic view of the Smart Sharpen dialog box. You
notice that your adjustments have added too much noise in the shadow areas. You switch to Advanced
view.
What should you do there?

A. Increase the Fade Amount setting in the Shadow tab.
B. Change the Remove option to Lens Blur in the Sharpen tab.
C. Check the More Accurate option in the Sharpen tab.
D. Decrease the Fade Amount setting in the Highlight tab.

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 72
You want to sharpen a photograph.
What should you do to prevent significant color shifts?

A. Sharpen each channel separately.
B. Sharpen only the Blue channel.
C. Use the Reduce Noise filter on each channel before sharpening.
D. Duplicate the layer, set it to the Luminosity blending mode, and sharpen it.

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 73
You are using the Healing Brush tool to reduce dark undereye circles in a photograph of a face. Which is the best blending mode to choose from the Mode menu in the Options bar?
A. Lighten
B. Screen
C. Luminosity
D. Replace 17 / 28 The safer , easier way to help you pass any IT exams.

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 74
You are retouching a portrait, and you want your changes to be located on a separate layer so you can
hide or show them.
Which retouching tool allows this?

A. The Patch tool
B. The Spot Healing Brush tool
C. The Color Replacement tool
D. The Red Eye tool

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 75
You have shot overlapping photographs of a wide landscape and then used Photomerge to align and
merge the photographs into a panorama. The result has large areas of transparent pixels at the top and
bottom of the image.
Which is the best way to eliminate those blank areas without deleting any part of the image?

A. Select the transparent pixels; then choose Edit > Fill and choose Content-Aware from the Use menu.
B. Select the transparent pixels, choose Select > Inverse, and then choose Image > Crop.
C. Select the transparent pixels. Then select the Patch tool, enlarge the brush tip, and click and drag inside the selection.
D. Select the Spot Healing Brush tool, and choose the Content-Aware and Replace options in the options bar. Paint over the transparent pixels.
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 76
Click the Exhibit button.

You want to remove the palm fronds at the top of the photograph on the left to achieve the result on the
right.
Which is likely to be the most effective feature to use?

A. Content-Aware Fill
B. Content-Aware Scale
C. The Patch tool
D. The Healing Brush tool 18 / 28 The safer , easier way to help you pass any IT exams.

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 77
Which task is Puppet Warp mode most useful for?
A. Retouching a profile of a model to make his nose appear less prominent
B. Creating a logo by warping an editable type layer to follow a curved path
C. Transforming a horizontal (“landscape”) photograph into a vertical (“portrait”) photograph
D. Creating a navigation bar of web buttons in which the shape of one button is automatically applied to the other buttons

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 78
You shot a photograph of a model for a magazine ad. Your client wants you to make her look more
slender.
Which features are best for accomplishing this task? (Choose two.)

A. Puppet Warp
B. The Liquify filter
C. The Healing Brush tool
D. The Distort command
E. The Displace filter

Correct Answer: AB
QUESTION 79
You are adjusting a raw photograph in Camera Raw, and you want to increase contrast in the midtones of
the photograph.
Which Camera Raw control should you use?

A. The Clarity slider
B. The Fill Light slider
C. The Brightness slider
D. The Recovery slider

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 80
You want to adjust the brightness of the lightest highlights in a raw photograph. Which control should you use in Camera Raw?
A. Exposure
B. Brightness
C. White Balance
D. Contrast
Correct Answer: A

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QUESTION 40
You want to print a hard proof on your local printer to see how your image will appear when it is printed on
a printing press. In the Color Management options of the Print dialog box you have selected the option for
Proof. Which setting should you choose in the Color Handling list?
Options:

A. Printer Manages Colors
B. Photoshop Manages Colors
C. Separations
D. No Color Management

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 41
In the Save for Web & Devices dialog box you have chosen to save an image in GIF format and have
turned on Transparency. Which dithering mode will eliminate any seams?
Options:

A. No Dither
B. Diffusion
C. Pattern
D. Noise

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 42
You are saving your file for Web output. Which two file formats support transparency? (Choose two.)
Select all that apply.
Options:

A. GIF
B. PNG
C. TIFF
D. JPEG
E. WBMP

Correct Answer: AB
QUESTION 43
You have a Photoshop document that has areas of transparency. You have chosen Save for Web &
Devices. You have selected JPEG as your output format. Which option should you set to determine the fill
color for the transparent pixels?
Options:

A. Progressive
B. Optimized
C. Blur
D. Matte

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 44
How do you export a JPEG image with all metadata deleted other than copyright and contact information? Options:
A. Select Optimized in the settings section
B. Select Edit Output Settings from the settings pop-up menu
C. Select Copyright and Contact Info from the Metadata pop-up menu
D. Select None from the Metadata pop-up menu

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 45
Which command lets you export an animation as an animated GIF file? Options:
A. File > Save As (then choose CompuServe GIF from the Format pop-up menu)
B. File > Save for Web & Devices
C. Convert to Frame Animation on the Animation panel menu
D. Export > Render Video
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 46
You have created frame-based animations by modifying image layers using the Animation panel. You want
to save the animation so that it can be played in a Web browser. Which command and file format should
you use to save the file?
Options:

A. File > Save As, GIF
B. File > Save for Web & Devices, GIF
C. File > Save A, PNG-8
D. File > Save for Web & Devices, PNG-8

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 47
You are preparing to slice your Photoshop document to prepare it for Web output. Which type of slice will
update if you move or edit layer content?
Options:

A. User slice
B. Auto slice
C. Layer slice
D. Guide slice

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 48
You are working with a Curves adjustment layer. Which should you choose in the Curves dialog box to be
able to lighten or darken a specific area of the image by dragging?
Options:

A. the black point eyedropper
B. the white point eyedropper
C. the pencil tool
D. the On-image adjustment tool

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 49
You are viewing an image in Photoshop with no current selection. You click on a color adjustment icon in
the Adjustments panel. How will the color adjustment affect the image?
Options:

A. Photoshop applies the adjustment directly to the entire image layer.
B. Photoshop applies the adjustment to the portion of the image layer viewable in the document window.
C. Photoshop creates an adjustment layer and applies the adjustment to the entire adjustment layer.
D. Photoshop creates an adjustment layer that includes a layer mask that will be black by default.

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 50
You are using a Curves adjustment to adjust the color of an image. You have set the Curves to display
light levels rather than percentages. Moving the point in the top portion of the curve has the greatest affect
on which pixels in the image?
Options:

A. highlights
B. midtones
C. shadows
D. fill light

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 51
In the Adjustments panel which method should you use to increase color saturation while preventing skin
tones from being oversaturated?
Options:

A. Select Relative in Selective Color
B. Increase Vibrance value in Vibrance
C. Increase the Gamma setting in Exposure
D. Select Preserve Luminosity in Color Balance

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 52
When using the Brush tool, which blending mode will allow you to paint with the hue and saturation of your
blend color while preserving the luminance of the base color?
Options:

A. Hue
B. Color
C. Saturation
D. Luminosity

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 53
You are painting on a layer using the Brush tool with the airbrush option turned off, a flow of 20% and an
opacity of 50%. Which action will result in the building up of the swatch color to a specific area of the
image beyond the flow percentage but not exceeding the opacity setting?
Options:

A. Keeping the mouse button depressed while holding the mouse still.
B. Dragging over the same area of the image repeatedly without lifting the mouse button.
C. Holding down Alt (Windows) or Option (Mac OS) and dragging over the same area of the image repeatedly without lifting the mouse button.
D. Holding down Ctrl (Windows) or Command (Mac OS) and dragging over the same area of the image repeatedly without lifting the mouse button.

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 54
You are painting with the Brush tool. You would like the paint to build up when you hold down the mouse
button. What should you do?
Options:

A. Set the blending mode to Darken
B. Set the blending mode to Multiply
C. Turn off the Airbrush

D. Turn on the Airbrush
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 55
You are creating a custom brush by using the Brushes panel. What do Jitter percentages specify? Options:
A. The randomness of various brush attributes.
B. The direction of a brush tip on its x or y-axis.
C. The fade of a brush attributes over a set number of steps.
D. The variance of brush attributes based on pen pressure.

Correct Answer: A

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QUESTION 42
Which statement about animation in Flash CS4 is true?
A. A layer with a Motion Tween can contain multiple objects
B. Shape Tweens are no longer supported in Flash CS4
C. Objects can animate on x, y, and z axis
D. Runtime armatures can be animated in the timeline

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 43
Which two color effects can be used to change transparency? (Choose two)
A. None
B. Brightness
C. Tint
D. Alpha
E. Advanced

Correct Answer: DE QUESTION 44
Which statement about shape tweens is true?
A. A light blue arrow in the timeline denotes a shape tween.
B. You must have at least 2 keyframes in order to create a shape tween.
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D. Each keyframe must contain symbols.

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 45
Which button state should you use to create an invisible button?
A. Up
B. Over
C. Down
D. Hit

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 46
Which statement about motion tweens is true?
A. A light green arrow in the timeline denotes a motion tween.
B. You must have at least 2 keyframes in order to create a motion tween.
C. Only 1 keyframe is needed.
D. Each keyframe cannot contain symbols.

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 47
You are able to set a property in the Motion Editor, but you are NOT able to adjust the same property
using a graph in the Motion Editor.
Why does this happen?

A. The property cannot be tweened because it can have only one value for the life of the object in the Timeline.
B. The property has not been tweened properly and needs to be edited on the Stage.
C. The property has a custom ease curve applied to it.
D. You are attempting to exceed a minimum or maximum allowable value for the property.

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 48
Which property can be edited by adjusting a Bezier curve in the Motion Editor?
A. the Quality property of the Gradient Bevel filter
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C. the Z-position property of a movie clip symbol
D. the Scale X property of a button symbol.

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 49
When should you use the Motion Editor?
A. When you want to edit a single Motion Tween
B. When you want to view multiple Motion Tweens
C. When you want to edit both Motion and Shape Tween
D. When you want to replace an object in the animation

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 50
What does the Motion Editor allow you to do?
A. Finely control animations of movie clips.
B. Finely control keyframes on a timeline.
C. Finely control the tweening of individual properties.
D. Finely control skins and styles of components.

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 51
Which two tasks can you complete by using the Motion Editor panel? (Choose two.)
A. Add motion tweens.
B. Add shape tweens.
C. Set the value of individual property keyframes.
D. Create custom ease curves.
E. Add or remove frames.

Correct Answer: CD
QUESTION 52
Which statement about Motion Presets is true?
A. You can apply more than one Motion Preset to a symbol.
B. Classic tweens can be saved as Motion Presets.
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D. Motion Presets can contain any type of tween.

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 53
Which statement about Motion Presets is true?
A. Motion Presets are pre-configured motion tweens.
B. Motion Presets are pre-configured shape tweens.
C. Motion Presets can be both pre-configured motion tweens and shape tweens.
D. Motion Presets are a new type of tween.

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 54
How do you export a Motion Preset?
A. Select the preset on the Timeline and choose File > Export > Export Movie.
B. Select the preset on the Stage and choose File > Export > Export Movie.
C. Select the preset in the Properties panel and choose File > Export > Export Movie.
D. Select the preset in the Motions Preset panel and choose Export from the panel menu.
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 55
In which file format can Motion Presets can be exported?
A. SWC
B. SWF
C. FLV
D. XML
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 56
Which two sound file formats can be imported into Adobe Flash CS4? (Choose two.)
A. MP3
B. OGG
C. ASND D. GSM
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Correct Answer: AC
QUESTION 57
You want to synchronize sound to the occurrence of an event; however, if the sound is already playing
you do NOT want a new instance of the sound to play.
Which sound synchronization option should you choose?

A. Event
B. Start
C. Stop
D. Stream

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 58
What happens when you import audio into a Flash movie?
A. It can be added to a movie clip, graphic or button symbol.
B. It is compressed as an MP3 by default when published.
C. It must be added to a frame in a timeline to be played.
D. It must be added to a symbol to be played.

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 59
In which situation should you use ADPCM sound compression?
A. For short sounds.
B. For long playing sounds.
C. For extremely short playing sounds.
D. For voice-overs.

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 60
Which two objects can have filters applied to them? (Choose two)
A. MovieClip
B. Vector Graphics
C. Graphic Symbol
D. TextField TestInside Help You Pass Any IT Exam http://www.TestInside.com Testinside
E. Shape

Correct Answer: AD QUESTION 61
You want to add a blur filter to a movie clip.
What should you do?
A. Select the movie clip on the Stage and select Blur from the Add filter icon from the Properties panel
B. Select the movie clip in the Library and select Blur from the Add filter icon from the Properties panel
C. Double-click the movie clip on the Stage and select Blur from the Add filter icon from the Properties panel
D. Right-click (Ctrl-click) the movie clip on the Stage and select Edit

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 62
You want to apply a blur effect to your text. What should you do?
A. Convert the text to a symbol then apply the blur filter using the Add Filter option within the Property panel
B. Select the text then apply the blur filter using the Add Filter option within the Property panel
C. Convert the text to device fonts then apply the blur filter using the Add Filter option within the Property panel
D. Break apart the text, then apply the blur filter using the Add Filter option within the Property panel

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 63
You want to add a drop shadow filter to a movie clip. What should you do?
A. Double-click the movie clip on the Stage and select Drop Shadow from the Add filter icon from the Properties panel
B. Select the movie clip in the Library and select Drop Shadow from the Add filter icon from the Properties panel
C. Select the movie clip on the Stage and select Drop Shadow from the Add filter icon from the Properties panel
D. Right-click (Ctrl-click) the movie clip on the Stage and select Edit

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 64
Which is a best practice when it comes to managing file size of external bitmap files?
A. Compress the bitmap file size and dimensions outside of Flash and then bring it onto Flash.
B. Bring the bitmap file into Flash and then reduce the JPEG quality within the Publish Settings dialog box.
C. Bring the bitmap file into Flash and then reduce the dimensions using the Free Transform tool.
D. Bring the bitmap file into Flash and then select Modify > Bitmap > Trace Bitmap.

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 65
Which two bitmap techniques are helpful when managing performance? (Choose two.)
A. Grouping bitmap layers together.
B. Minimizing the use of transparency in PNG files.
C. Using transparency as much as possible.
D. Minimizing the use of vector assets.
E. Utilizing curves rather than corners whenever possible.

Correct Answer: AB QUESTION 66
Click the Exhibit button.

Which layer is used to hold an inverse kinematics armature?
A. Layer1
B. Layer2
C. Layer3
D. Layer4

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 67
You want to select all of the bones in an inverse kinematics armature.
What should you do?
TestInside Help You Pass Any IT Exam http://www.TestInside.com Testinside
A. double-click a bone with the Selection tool
B. double-click a bone with the Bone tool
C. Control+click (Windows) or Command-click (Mac OS) a bone with the Selection tool
D. Control+click (Windows) or Command-click (Mac OS) a bone with the Bone tool

Correct Answer: A

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QUESTION 71
Your are using RGB logos and want to maintain the intensity of the colors in your PDF document. When managing color in a PDF document using the Color panel of the Adobe PDF Settings dialog, which Document Rendering Intent is most suitable for accurate color proofing?
A. Saturation
B. Relative Colorimetric
C. Perceptual
D. Absolute Colorimetric
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 72
What should you do to open a PDF document that contains specific text?
A. choose Edit > Find, type the text and click Next
B. choose Edit > Find, type the text and click Previous
C. choose Edit > Search, type the text and select the option to search all PDF documents in a designated folder, then click the Search button
D. choose Edit > Search, type the text, select the option to search in the current PDF document, then click the Search button
Correct Answer: C QUESTION 73
What does the Output Preview panel color warning highlight if the Show Overprinting option is selected?
A. objects that will print on top of each other instead of knocking out
B. sections of the page that contain objects that are too close to the edge of the press sheet
C. areas where CMYK color and spot colors touch and therefore require trapping
D. areas where the ink is too dense

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 74
Which preflight feature allows you to preflight your file against the PDF settings of a print service provider?
A. PDF/X
B. import of a profile
C. validation
D. import of an FDF

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 75
You have run the Full Check Accessibility command on a tagged PDF document. The report indicates that one of the figures does NOT have alternate text applied. How should you add the alternate text?
A. choose Advanced > Accessibility > Change Reading Options
B. in the Tags pane, Control-click (Mac OS) or right-click (Windows) on the figure tag and select Properties
C. in the Tags pane, Control-click (Mac OS) or right-click (Windows) on the figure tag and select Tag Annotations
D. Control-click (Mac OS) or right-click (Windows) on the figure and select Add Note

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 76
Which preflight feature allows you to preflight your file against the PDF settings of a print service provider?
A. import of an FDF
B. import of a profile
C. PDF/X
D. validation

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 77
You are creating a PDF document for print. The job will be printed at 133 lines per inch on a sheet-feed offset press. Which sampling values should you use for monochrome images in the Images panel of the Adobe PDF Settings dialog box?
A. 300 pixels per inch for images above 800 pixels per inch
B. 1200 pixels per inch for images above 1800 pixels per inch
C. 133 pixels per inch for images above 800 pixels per inch
D. 133 pixels per inch for images above 300 pixels per inch

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 78
Which icon takes you to the Home page of the How To window?

A. A
B. B
C. C
D. D

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 79
Which type of security policy allows individuals to limit the time period within which access to a PDF document is allowed?
A. public key certificate security policy
B. password security policy
C. user security policy on an Adobe Policy Server
D. organizational security policy on an Adobe Policy Server

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 80
What does the Emit Printer Marks setting in the Marks and Bleeds panel of the Advanced Printer Setup dialog do?
A. specifies the cropbox size
B. uses the printer marks embedded in the Adobe PDF file
C. determines the weight of printer mark lines
D. creates all printer marks at once

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 81
You are about to submit a PDF document to a print vendor. The document uses full-color images. You notice that the document contains three spot colors. This should be a four-color process job, and you do NOT have the original files. What should you do?
A. use the Ink Manager to alias all spot colors to process simulations
B. ask the print vendor to combine the spot plates to one of the process plates at print time with Acrobat
C. use the Preflight tool to convert the job to a process-color job
D. redistill the file and convert all colors to CMYK with Distiller
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 82
Which mark is necessary if your project includes bleeds?
A. bleed
B. trim
C. registration
D. page information

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 83
Which Preflight Report option allows you to highlight problem areas with a transparent mask?
A. XML Report
B. Text Report
C. Insert Preflight Results As Comments
D. PDF Report

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 84
Which preflight problem would cause failure during validation for the digital press (color) profile?
A. Object uses CMYK.
B. Document images are on CMY plates.
C. PDF/X label is missing or incorrect.
D. PDF version is newer than 1.2.

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 85
You have created a four-color brochure. It needs to be sent to a commercial printing company for reproduction, and the printer has required that you build all necessary elements for printing (e.g., fonts and graphics) into a PDF document. Which Acrobat Distiller job option should you choose?
A. Smallest File Size
B. High Quality Print
C. Standard
D. Press Quality

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 86
You want to determine if the number of printing plates that will be generated from a PDF document will exceed a certain number. What should you do?
A. create a batch sequence with a Preflight command
B. create a preflight profile and assign a condition in the Document Property group
C. create a preflight profile and assign a condition in the Colors Property group
D. create a batch sequence with a Number Pages command
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 87
Which mark is necessary if your project includes bleeds?
A. page information
B. trim
C. bleed
D. registration

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 88
Which part of a digital ID is shared with others to verify the digital signature of the person who created the document?
A. public certificate
B. certificate authority
C. PKCS#12 file
D. private key

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 89
You want to add a page number to the footer on all but the first page of your PDF document. The first page is an odd numbered page. Which option in the Page Options section of the Add Headers & Footers dialog box should you choose?
A. Apply to Page Range
B. Odd Pages Only
C. Even Pages Only
D. Apply to All Pages

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 90
Your PDF document contains a chart. You want to include the original source document for this chart as a reference. What should you do?
A. select the Attachments pane, click on the Add button and select the appropriate document
B. select the Attachments pane, choose Options > Open Attachment
C. choose Document > Compare Documents and choose the appropriate file
D. choose Advanced > Links

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 91
You want to create a comment that draws a text box directly on the page. Which commenting tool should you use?
A. Text Box tool
B. Pencil tool
C. Select tool
D. Note tool
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 92
What is the purpose of the Simulation Profile setting in the Output Preview dialog box?
A. to describe the target output device
B. to highlight warning areas for color problems
C. to identify the color space used in the PDF
D. to specify how overprinting will be handled in the resulting PDF

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 93
You have several PDF documents that are located in different folders. You want to be able to access these documents from a single location without copying or moving them.
Which feature of the Organizer allows you to do this?
A. Favorite Places
B. History
C. Pages pane
D. Collections

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 94
You have run the Full Check Accessibility command on a tagged PDF document. The report indicates that one of the figures does NOT have alternate text applied. How should you add the alternate text?
A. Control-click (Mac OS) or right-click (Windows) on the figure and select Add Note
B. in the Tags pane, Control-click (Mac OS) or right-click (Windows) on the figure tag and select Properties
C. choose Advanced > Accessibility > Change Reading Options
D. in the Tags pane, Control-click (Mac OS) or right-click (Windows) on the figure tag and select Tag Annotations

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 95
You want to add a bookmark to a PDF document. What should you do?
A. select the Pages pane, select the desired page, choose Options > Page Properties
B. select the Bookmark pane, click the Create New Bookmark button, then change to the desired view
C. choose Edit > Add Bookmark, then change to the desired view
D. set the desired view, select the Bookmark pane, then click the Create New Bookmark button

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 96
You want to attach a file to your PDF document so that a user can open the attached file by clicking on an icon that displays in a specific location on a page. What should you do?
A. create a link with an action of Go to Page View
B. click the Attach a File icon in the toolbar
C. click the Attach a File as a Comment icon in the Commenting toolbar
D. create an envelope

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 97
What does dragging PDF documents onto a preflight droplet allow you to do?
A. create multiple preflight profiles
B. send multiple files to an output device
C. inspect multiple PDF documents for problem areas
D. convert multiple file types to PDF Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 98
Which kind of PDF document should be created by using the PDF/A (Draft) specification?
A. documents being stored in a digital archive
B. graphics project files for proofing
C. files that need to be as small as possible
D. files that need to be locked against changes

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 99
You are using Distiller to create the smallest appropriate PDF document for high-end imaging. In the Images panel, which resampling option should you use to obtain the smoothest tonal gradations?
A. Subsampling
B. Average Downsampling
C. Off
D. Bicubic Downsampling

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 100
Your PDF document contains text and transparent objects that overlap. When printed, the text is rasterized. What should you do from the Flattener Preview dialog box to correct the problem when the document is printed?
A. raise the Line Art and Text resolution
B. raise the Gradient and Mesh resolution
C. deselect Clip Complex Regions
D. move the Raster/Vector balance more towards Vectors

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 101
Which statement about setting up a browser-based review is true?
A. New comments are stored in the FDF file.
B. Comments uploaded with the document are editable.
C. New comments are stored in the PDF file.
D. The location of the FDF file that contains the review comments must be in the same location where the review document is stored.

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 102
You choose File > Create PDF > From Scanner. You select Searchable Image as the PDF Output Style from the Recognize Text Settings dialog box. Which statement about the resulting PDF document is true?
A. Graphic elements are removed.
B. The page is unchanged.
C. The appearance of the page may change.
D. You are able to select text.

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 103
What should you do to remove a section of your document and use it as a separate PDF file?
A. choose File > Create PDF > From File
B. choose Document > Replace Pages
C. choose Document > Extract Pages
D. choose Document > Delete Pages

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 104
Which is searched by default in a PDF document by using either the Find toolbar or the Search PDF window?
A. document properties
B. XMP metadata
C. form fields
D. object data

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 105
You have set the background color of pages and the color of text by using the Preferences dialog box while a PDF document is open. Which do these specifications affect?
A. your view of all PDF documents
B. the view of the PDF documents any user will see on any system
C. your view of the PDF document
D. the printing of the PDF document

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 106
Which Preflight Report option allows you to highlight problem areas with a transparent mask?
A. PDF Report
B. Text Report
C. XML Report
D. Insert Preflight Results As Comments
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 107
When should you select Simulate Ink Black in the Output Preview palette?
A. when you need to change the density of the ink you want to print based on the paper onto which you are printing
B. after converting from RGB to CMYK, to see if the black uses black ink only
C. when black objects overprint objects of other colors, so you can see the effect of the mix
D. when you want to see the effect that a certain paper or printing method might have on the black ink on a job based on a Simulationn Profile

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 108
You are using the Flattener Preview dialog box. Which condition does Convert All Strokes to Outlines improve?
A. increased thicknesses of thin strokes
B. slow performance when flattening
C. inconsistent line widths on stroked objects
D. disappearing hairlines

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 109
Which statement about the relationship between the Adobe PDF printer and Distiller is true?
A. Distiller and the Adobe PDF printer have different functions.
B. The Adobe PDF printer and Distiller operate independently.
C. The Adobe PDF printer uses Distiller to create PDF files.
D. Distiller uses the Adobe PDF printer to create PDF files.

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 110
Which technique generates a tagged PDF document?
A. choose File > Print > Adobe PDF
B. choose Create PDF > From Clipboard Image
C. use PDFMaker from a Microsoft Office application
D. convert a PostScript file using Acrobat Distiller

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 111
What happens when you select Optimize for Fast Web View in the File Options section of the General panel in Distiller?
A. Thumbnails are generated.
B. Color photographs are downsampled.
C. The PDF file is structured.
D. The Postscript file’s resolution is queried.

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 112
You have selected Allow Fast Web View as an option for viewing PDF documents in a Web browser. What must you do to continue downloading the entire PDF document in the background while you view the first page of requested information?
A. force offscreen compositing even under Terminal Service
B. use inline AutoComplete
C. allow speculative downloading in the background
D. choose LAN from the Connection speed pop-up menu

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 113
You want to create a profile for your specific press conditions. You can accept PDF/X-3 files. Which profile should you use?
A. a custom profile based on PDF/X-3 that also checks for trapping
B. the default PDF/X-3:2001 profile
C. a custom profile based on PDF/X-3 that also checks resolution
D. the default PDF/X-3:2003 profile Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 114
How can you add a signature field to a PDF document so that another person can sign it?
A. choose Document > Digital Signatures > Sign this Document
B. choose Document > Digital Signatures > Validate Signature
C. choose Document > Digital Signatures > Create a Blank Signature Field
D. choose Document > Digital Signatures > Validate All Signatures in Document

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 115
When should you change the default value for resolution in the Adobe PDF Settings dialog box of Distiller?
A. when you want to emulate a printer of a certain resolution
B. when you need to change the pixel size of embedded images
C. when you want to improve the compatibility of Distiller
D. when you need to set resolution of the flattening used for transparent objects

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 116
Which statement about the relationship between the Adobe PDF printer and Distiller is true?
A. Distiller uses the Adobe PDF printer to create PDF files.
B. Distiller and the Adobe PDF printer have different functions.
C. The Adobe PDF printer and Distiller operate independently.
D. The Adobe PDF printer uses Distiller to create PDF files.

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 117
Which is changed when you select Simulate Paper White in a PDF document?
A. the color model used in the file, based on the Simulation Profile used in the Output Preview
B. the density of the colors in the file, based on the paper used for the job
C. the appearance of the white areas in the file to better represent the look of the paper used in the job
D. the amount of color added to the solid black areas of the file

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 118
What should you do to initiate a browser-based review of a PDF document?
A. copy the PDF document to a folder on your hard drive
B. attach the PDF document to an email and send it to the reviewers
C. upload the PDF document to a WebDAV server
D. create a link on a Web page to the PDF document

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 119
You want to change the section of a PDF document that is being displayed in the Loupe Tool window while maintaining the current magnification factor. What should you do?
A. hold down the spacebar while clicking in the Loupe Tool window to drag the display within the Loupe Tool window
B. move the rectangular marquee displayed in the document
C. move the rectangular marquee displayed within the Loupe Tool window
D. right-click (Windows) or Control-click (Mac OS) in the Loupe Tool window; scroll the display within the Loupe Tool window

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 120
Which is a difference between PDF/X-1a files and PDF/X-3 files?
A. PDF/X-1a files CANNOT include spot colors.
B. PDF/X-3 files do NOT need to include a trapping key.
C. PDF/X-3 files require RGB color.
D. PDF/X-1a files CANNOT include ICC profiles.

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 121
You want to print only a portion of a PDF document page.
Which tool should you use to drag around the area you want to print?
A. A
B. B
C. C
D. D

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 122
You want to create a comment that draws a text box directly on the page. Which commenting tool should you use?
A. Pencil tool
B. Note tool
C. Select tool
D. Text Box tool

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 123
You want to reduce the file size of an existing PDF document with images that consist of color photos. You choose Advanced > PDF Optimizer. Which option should you choose from the Compression pull-down menu in the Images Settings panel?
A. ZIP
B. JPEG
C. Retain existing
D. CCITT Group 4

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 124
What happens when you select Optimize for Fast Web View in the File Options section of the General panel in Distiller?
A. Color photographs are downsampled.
B. The PDF file is structured.
C. Thumbnails are generated.
D. The Postscript file’s resolution is queried.

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 125
What does the Emit Printer Marks setting in the Marks and Bleeds panel of the Advanced Printer Setup dialog do?
A. specifies the cropbox size
B. creates all printer marks at once
C. uses the printer marks embedded in the Adobe PDF file
D. determines the weight of printer mark lines

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 126
You have created an Adobe PDF document without embedding your fonts into the file.
What happens when a user, who does NOT have the fonts used to create the PDF document, opens the PDF document?
A. The user will receive an alert stating that the fonts are missing and the file will close.
B. Adobe Acrobat or Adobe Reader will substitute the fonts with the AdobeSerifMM and AdobeSansMM fonts.
C. The user’s preferred system fonts will be used to display the file.
D. Helvetica, Arial, or Times will be automatically substituted for the missing fonts.

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 127
What should you do to remove a section of your document and use it as a separate PDF file?
A. choose Document > Extract Pages
B. choose Document > Delete Pages
C. choose File > Create PDF > From File
D. choose Document > Replace Pages

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 128
Which option are you able to view when choosing Separations as a Preview option from the Output Preview dialog box?
A. trapping
B. how objects on hidden layers will separate
C. rich black
D. areas where Total Area Coverage exceeds your press limit

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 129
You create a PostScript file that will be converted into a PDF document. You choose to embed the fonts into the PostScript stream. Which statement about the fonts embedded into the PDF document is true?
A. They are NEVER embedded because they CANNOT be embedded in PostScript and PDF.
B. They are always embedded because they are embedded in PostScript.
C. They are only embedded if the fonts are TrueType or PostScript Type 1.
D. They are only embedded if you select Embed All Fonts in the Adobe PDF setting’s Fonts tab.

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 130
You have created an Adobe Acrobat document. Due to the settings of your font vendor, some of your fonts have NOT been embedded. You give the PDF document to two
co-workers who do NOT have the original font installed on their computers. What happens when they print your document?
A. A Multiple Master typeface will be temporarily substituted.
B. They will be asked to choose a font to be substituted during printing.
C. The document will NOT print due to a PostScript error.
D. The original font will print as a low resolution bitmapped font.

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 131
How can you change a split screen view to a single pane view?
A. Document > Set Page Transitions
B. Window > Remove Split
C. View > Actual Size
D. Window > Spreadsheet Split Correct Answer: B
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QUESTION 111
You want to create transparency based on light or dark areas in your image. Which key should you use?
A. Luma Key
B. Multiply Key
C. Chroma Key
D. Difference Key

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 112
Which term is an invisible channel that defines transparent areas for the clip that contains the channel?
A. alpha
B. matte
C. keying
D. luminance

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 113
An image has a particular color in it. You want all of the pixels with that color to be transparent. What is the term for this process?
A. Mask
B. Matte
C. Keying
D. Alpha Channel

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 114
Your timeline is set to display keyframes. You want to set a new keyframe for a property in the timeline. What should you do?
A. Position the Pen tool over the keyframe graph line where you want to add the keyframe, and then click.
B. Position the Selection tool over the keyframe graph line where you want to add the keyframe, and then click.
C. Position the Pen tool over the keyframe graph line where you want to add the keyframe, and then Control-click.
D. Position the Selection tool over the keyframe graph line where you want to add the keyframe, and then Control-click.
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 115
You want to move clip A from left to right across the screen with one full revolution. Which should you use?
A. One position keyframe and one rotation keyframe.
B. Two motion keyframes and one rotation keyframe.
C. Two position keyframes and one rotation keyframe.
D. Two position keyframes and two rotation keyframes.

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 116
You want to apply the same amount of transparency to an entire clip. What should you do?
A. choose File > Interpret Footage and automatically add an alpha channel
B. adjust the clip’s opacity in the Effect Controls window with the Opacity stopwatch turned off
C. set keyframes at the beginning of a clip, and then adjust the clip’s Opacity Handles later in the timeline
D. set keyframes at the end of a clip, and then adjust the clip’s Opacity Handles earlier in the timeline

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 117
You are composting greenscreen footage that was poorly lit. The corners of the green footage are dark. The subject is in the center of the frame, and you want to remove the dark corners to make the green screen key easier to achive. Which filter should you use to help crop the corners of the green screen footage?
A. Difference
B. Corner Pin
C. Remove Matte
D. Garbage Matte

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 118
In which situation should you deinterlace video footage?
A. You are exporting for PAL TV
B. You are exporting for the Web
C. You are exporting for NTSC TV
D. You are exporting for broadcast

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 119
Which options in the Export Movies dialog box will allow you to open and edit the original project from within another Adobe Premiere Pro project or from another application that supports the command.?
A. File Type set to Targa and Embedding Options set to Project
B. File Type set to QuickTime and Embedding Options set to None
C. File Type set to Animated GIF and Embedding Options set to None
D. File Type set to Microsoft AVI and Embedding Options set to Project

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 120
Which media format is only available when exporting a timeline using the Adobe Media Encoder?
A. QuickTime
B. RealMedia
C. Microsoft AVI
D. Microsoft DV AVI

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 121
Which set of options in the Transcode Settings dialog box of the Adobe Media Encoder will allow you to store information about the media?
A. Metadata
B. Audience
C. Multiplexer
D. Bitrate Encoding

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 122
You want to export your sequence with an alpha channel for later import into an NTSC DV project. Which compression method should you choose in the Export Movie Settings dialog box?
A. Microsoft DV
B. QuickTime Cinepak
C. QuickTime Sorenson
D. Uncompressed Microsoft .AVI with millions of colors+

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 123
Click the Exhibit button.
You are exporting the timeline using the Adobe Media Encoder as shown in the exhibit. What effect will happen if you decrease the quality from 5 to 3 have?

A. Increase the quality of the exported file
B. Reduce the interlacing of the exported file
C. Reduce the time it takes to encode the file
D. Increase the time it takes to encode the file

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 124
Click the Exhibit button.
You are exporting the timeline using the Adobe Media Encoder as shown in the exhibit. What effect will decreasing the bitrate from 8.00 to 5.00 have?

A. Reduce the file size of the exported file
B. Reduce the frame rate of the exported file
C. Reduce the frame size of the exported file
D. Reduce the number of fields in the exported file

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 125
You are working with a sequence that will be exported to a movie for streaming Web playback. Which three encoding formats should you choose? (Choose three)
A. MPEG2
B. MPEG1
C. RealMedia
D. QuickTime
E. Microsoft DV
F. Windows Media
Correct Answer: CDF
QUESTION 126
You want to export your sequence to an NTSC DV movie for use in future NTSC DV projects. Which video options should you choose in the Export Movie Settings dialog box?
A. 720 x 480 Frame Size; No Fields (Progressive Scan); 15 fps Non Drop-Frame Timecode; Square Pixels (1.0).
B. 320 x 240 Frame Size; No Fields (Progressive Scan); 15 fps Non Drop-Frame Timecode; Square Pixels (1.0).
C. 720 x 480 Frame Size; Lower Fields First; 29.97 fps Drop Frame Timecode; D1/DV NTSC (0.9) Pixel Aspect Ratio.
D. 720 x 486 Frame Size; Lower Fields First; 29.97 fps Drop Frame Timecode; D1/DV NTSC (0.9) Pixel Aspect Ratio.
Correct Answer: C

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QUESTION 105
You are exporting the timeline using the Adobe Media Encoder as shown in the exhibit. What effect will happen if you decrease the quality from 5 to 3 have?

A. Reduce the time it takes to encode the file
B. Increase the quality of the exported file
C. Increase the time it takes to encode the file
D. Reduce the interlacing of the exported file

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 106
You are working in a project that is 720 by 480 pixels. You import a still image that is 1024 pixels by 768 pixels. What happens to the still image in your project?
A. It imports at 1024 pixels by 786 pixels using the still image’s pixel aspect ratio.
B. It automatically resizes to 720 pixels by 480 pixels with the project’s pixel aspect ratio.
C. It imports at 1024 pixels by 786 pixels using the project’s pixel aspect ratio.
D. It automatically resizes to 720 pixels by 480 pixels with the still image’s pixel aspect ratio

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 107
You are composting greenscreen footage that was poorly lit. The corners of the green footage are dark. The subject is in the center of the frame, and you want to remove the dark corners to make the green screen key easier to achive. Which filter should you use to help crop the corners of the green screen footage?
A. Corner Pin
B. Difference
C. Garbage Matte
D. Remove Matte

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 108
You want to slow down the speed of a credit roll you have created as a rolling title in the Adobe Title Designer. What should you do?
A. decrease the length of the title in the timeline
B. decrease the Speed value in the Object Style area of the Title Designer
C. increase the length of the title clip in the timeline
D. increase the Y value of the title in the Transform area of the Title Designer

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 109
Which three transition settings can be made directly in the Effects Control window? (Choose three)
A. Change the in/out points of the A or B clip
B. Change the transition position
C. Change the duration of the transition
D. Change the transition type
E. Change the default transition

Correct Answer: ABC
QUESTION 110
You want to insert Clip D (not shown) from the Project window into Video Track 2 at edit point 1.
Which three steps should you choose? (Choose three.)

A. Drag Clip D from the Project Window to Edit Point 1 while holding the Control key.
B. Select Clip D in the Project Window and choose nsert Clip at Zero Point?from the Project Window Options menu.
C. Drag Clip D to the Project window to Edit Point 1 while holding the Alt key
D. Right-click Clip D in the Project Window and choose Insert.
E. Place Clip D in the Source Window and click the Insert button.

Correct Answer: ADE
QUESTION 111
A timebase setting of 24 has been set in the General submenu of the Project settings dialog box. Which type of footage is typically edited using that setting?
A. motion picture film
B. NTSC format video
C. SECAM format video
D. PAL format video

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 112
The capture format options are NOT appearing in the Capture submenu of the Project Settings dialog box. Which setting has been selected from the Capture Format drop down menu ?
A. QuickTime
B. DV/IEEE 1394 Capture
C. MPEG-2
D. Video for Windows

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 113
You want a title to fade in over a clip. What should you do?
A. select the clip in the timeline, then set opacity keyframes in the Effects window
B. select the clip in the timeline, then set opacity keyframes in the Effects Control window
C. select the title in the timeline, then set opacity keyframes in the Effects window
D. select the title in the timeline, then set opacity keyframes in the Effects Control window

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 114
Which audio processing step occurs first when you import a project?
A. Premiere Pro applies gain adjustments applied to clips by using the command Clip > Audio Options > Audio Gain.
B. Premiere Pro conforms its audio to the audio settings specified in the New Project dialog box.
C. Premiere Pro applies effects to clips.
D. Premiere Pro processes track settings such as prefade effects, prefade sends, mute, etc.

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 115
You want to adjust the edit point between two clips in your timeline. You do NOT want to adjust the total length of the sequence. Which editing tool or button should you use?
A. Ripple Edit tool
B. Insert Edit button
C. Extract button
D. Rolling Edit tool

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 116
What happens when you attempt to drag an audio clip (including audio linked to video) to an audio track of a different channel type?
A. A dialog box box appears, prompting you to resolve the problem by choosing another target track, or
creating a compatible target track.
B. Premiere Pro automatically generates or removes audio channels in the clip to match the audio track’s channel type.
C. The clip is added to the track; however, Premiere Pro ignores or distributes audio channels in the clip according to the audio track’s channel type.
D. The audio clip (or audio component of a linked clip) automatically shifts to the next compatible audio track; if no such track exists, then an audio track of the appropriate channel type is created automatically.

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 117
You want to apply the same amount of transparency to an entire clip. What should you do?
A. adjust the clip’s opacity in the Effect Controls window with the Opacity stopwatch turned off
B. set keyframes at the beginning of a clip, and then adjust the clip’s Opacity Handles later in the timeline
C. choose File > Interpret Footage and automatically add an alpha channel
D. set keyframes at the end of a clip, and then adjust the clip’s Opacity Handles earlier in the timeline

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 118
For which task should you choose Project > Automate to Sequence?
A. place parts of clips in a sequence without setting in and out points
B. quickly assemble a rough cut of clips into a sequence
C. automatically place different transitions between clips in a sequence
D. export clips from a bin to a DV camera

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 119
Which menu allows you to set the default transition?
A. The right click menu on the transition
B. The Effects Control window menu
C. The Preferences menu
D. The Effects window menu

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 120
In which three situations should you choose the Automate to Sequence command in the Project window? (Choose three.)
A. To automatically place the selected clips into the timeline using the default transition between clips.
B. To automatically place the selected clips into the gaps between clips already on the timeline.
C. To automatically place transitions between clips that are already on the timeline
D. To quickly assemble a rough cut in the timeline based on the sort order of the project bin.
E. To place clips on the timeline with your default effects and transitions applied
F. To automatically place the selected clips into the timeline at unnumbered markers.

Correct Answer: ADF
QUESTION 121
You have been give a Premiere Pro project file and source tapes. When you open the project, you discover that the entry for Media Type for all clips is listed as Offline. What should you do?
A. Select the clips in the Project window, and choose Project > Link Media.
B. Select the clips in the Project window and choose File > Batch Capture.
C. Choose File > Capture and in the Capture window, click the Tape button.
D. Select the clips in the Project window, drag them to the Capture window, and click the Record button.

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 122
You are dragging the shuttle slider in the Monitor window to the left. What happens as you move the slider further to the left?
A. The clip plays backwards going slower as you drag further to the left.
B. The clip plays forward going slower as you drag further to the left.
C. The clip plays backwards going faster as you drag further to the left.
D. The clip plays forward going faster as you drag further to the left.

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 123
An image has a particular color in it. You want all of the pixels with that color to be transparent. What is the term for this process?
A. Alpha Channel
B. Keying
C. Matte
D. Mask
Correct Answer: B

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QUESTION 26
Review the screenshot of the Permissions pane in Server Admin, and then answer the question below.

Pat is a member of both the Employees group and the HR Training group. You have assigned permissions to a folder as illustrated. What access does Pat have to the folder?
A. Pat has read-only access to the folder.
B. Pat has write-only access to the folder.
C. Pat does not have any access to the folder.
D. Pat has both read and write access to the folder.

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 27
Where do you configure service access control lists (SACLs) for Mac OS X Server v10.6?
A. In Workgroup Manager’s Sharing Access pane
B. In Server Admin, in the Access pane for the currently selected server
C. In Server Admin, in the Access pane for the currently selected service
D. In Workgroup Manager, in the Access pane for a user or group record

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 28
Review the screenshot of the Permissions pane in Server Admin, and then answer the question below.

Pat is a member of both the Employees and the HR Training group. You have assigned permissions to a folder as illustrated. What access does Pat have to the folder?
A. Pat has read-only access to the folder.
B. Pat has write-only access to the folder.
C. Pat does not have any access to the folder.
D. Pat has both read and write access to the folder.

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 29
What is the maximum number of replicas of one Open Directory master that can be used in a Mac OS X Server v10.6 Open Directory infrastructure?
A. 31
B. 64
C. 256
D. 1024
E. 1056

Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 30
You are the administrator of a Mac OS X Server v10.6 computer. In Server Admin, you click the Archive button for the Open Directory service. Which of these databases will NOT be archived?
A. Kerberos
B. LDAP Directory
C. Active Directory
D. Password Server
E. Local directory domain

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 31
A Mac OS X Server computer is configured to provide directory data to computers on a network. You are configuring another Mac OS X Server computer to be a secondary source for the directory data. Which role should you select for it in the Open Directory service in Server Admin’s Open Directory Assistant?
A. Connect to another directory
B. Set up a standalone directory
C. Set up an Open Directory master
D. Set up an Open Directory replica

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 32
Review the screenshot, and then answer the question below.

You open Workgroup Manager and connect to a Mac OS X Server v10.6 computer that has been configured as an Open Directory master and is bound to another LDAP server. When you click on the Directory Domain pop-up menu, it displays the options shown in the screenshot above. Which option should you choose if you want to create network user records that will be used to log into computers bound to the Open Directory master?
A. Local
B. Search Policy
C. /LDAPv3/127.0.0.1
D. /LDAPv3/mainserver.pretendco.com

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 33
What token does a client present when authenticating to a kerberized service?
A. The user’s password
B. A client-generated service ticket
C. A service ticket obtained from the Key Distribution Center (KDC)
D. A ticket-granting ticket (TGT) obtained from the Key Distribution Center (KDC)

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 34
Why might a Mac OS X computer be unable to use Kerberos to access a Mac OS X Server v10.6 computer that has Kerberos enabled for file service authorization?
A. The client and server computer’s time settings are out of sync.
B. The client computer is not configured to use a static IP address.
C. The client computer is not configured to use the server as a DNS server.
D. The IP address of the client computer does not have a PTR record in the DNS server.

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 35
Which password policy can NOT be set for user accounts in Mac OS X Server v10.6?
A. Password must contain at least one letter.
B. Password must be reset at a specified time interval.
C. Password must differ from the last three passwords used.
D. Password must contain both uppercase and lowercase letters.
E. Password must differ from all passwords used in the past year.
F. Password must contain a character that is not a letter or a number.

Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 36
Which utility can you use to display the status of Kerberos TGTs on a Mac OS X v10.6 computer?
A. Ticket Viewer
B. Server Admin
C. KerberosAgent
D. Kerberos Utility
E. Directory Utility

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 37
You are using Workgroup Manager to configure a user account in Mac OS X Server v10.6. You want the user to authenticate via Kerberos. Which password type should you select for the user account?
A. crypt
B. shadow
C. Open Directory
D. Kerberos Distribution
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 38
Which of these is a zone that is configurable from Server Admin?
A. Cache
B. Master
C. Pointer
D. Forward
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 39
What kind of DNS record is created when you add an alias in Server Admin?
A. A
B. MX
C. PTR
D. CNAME

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 40
Review the image, and then answer the question below.

The Mac OS X Server computer hosts a shared directory domain to which three Mac OS X computers, A,
B, and C, are bound. Which two statements are true of this network?
Choose two – partial credit is possible.

A. Users defined in the Shared domain of the Mac OS X Server computer can log in to client computer A.
B. Users defined only in the Local domain of client computer C can log in to the Mac OS X Server computer.
C. Users defined only in the Local domain of the Mac OS X Server computer cannot log in to client computers.
D. Directory Access was used on the Mac OS X Server computer to bind client computer B to its parent domain.
E. Directory Utility was used on the Mac OS X Server computer to bind the server to the local domain on computer A.

Correct Answer: AC
QUESTION 41
DNS service ________.
A. maps host names to Ethernet IDs, and vice versa
B. maps host names to IP addresses, and vice versa
C. identifies the primary router for a given domain name
D. tells users whether other clients are connected to the network

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 42
In Server Admin for Mac OS X Server, what type of record should you add to the zone on your DNS server to associate a printers host name to its IP address?
A. Alias
B. Print
C. Service
D. Machine
E. Exchange

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 43
In Mac OS X Server, you configure password policies in ________ and __________. Choose two.
A. Server Admin, as part of the Server Access settings
B. Workgroup Manager, in the Basic user account pane
C. Server Admin, as part of the Open Directory settings
D. Workgroup Manager, in the Advanced user account pane
E. Workgroup Manager, as part of the Accounts preferences

Correct Answer: CD
QUESTION 44
You have successfully installed Mac OS X Server, and are now using Server Assistant to perform the initial configuration of the server in Advanced mode. What two directory configurations are available to you? Choose two.
A. NetInfo Master
B. Standalone Server
C. Open Directory Replica
D. Open Directory Master
E. Active Directory Master
F. Connected to a Directory System

Correct Answer: DF
QUESTION 45
You are configuring a Mac OS X Server computer as a file server, but your user accounts are stored on an Active Directory server. Which Open Directory role should you choose for the Mac OS X Server computer?
A. Standalone
B. Open Directory Master
C. Open Directory Replica
D. Connected to a directory server
Correct Answer: D

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