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QUESTION 52
How can you add a signature field to a PDF document so that another person can sign it?
A. choose Document > Digital Signatures > Create a Blank Signature Field
B. choose Document > Digital Signatures > Sign this Document
C. choose Document > Digital Signatures > Validate All Signatures in Document
D. choose Document > Digital Signatures > Validate Signature

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 53
You are going to create a PDF document from a Web page. You want to capture the Web page, but not the background image. You open the HTML Conversion Settings dialog box. What should you do next?
A. select Disable Media Capture
B. deselect Convert Images
C. set the Background Color to White
D. deselect Page Tiled Image Backgrounds

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 54
When previewing separations in the Output Preview panel, what does the Total Area Coverage indicator highlight?
A. areas on the page where there is not enough ink to cover the page
B. areas that use more ink than the selected maximum percentage
C. any place where a spot-color object sits on top of a process-color object
D. gaps in a solid-color object when placed next to another solid-color object

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 55
Which technique generates a tagged PDF document?
A. choose File > Print > Adobe PDF
B. convert a PostScript file using Acrobat Distiller
C. use PDFMaker from a Microsoft Office application
D. choose Create PDF > From Clipboard Image

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 56
When printing to highly absorptive paper, such as newsprint, which Gray Working Space are you most likely to need in the Color panel of the Adobe PDF Settings dialog box in Distiller?
A. sGray
B. Black & White
C. Dot Gain 10%
D. Dot Gain 30%

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 57
You have set the background color of pages and the color of text by using the Preferences dialog box while a PDF document is open. Which do these specifications affect?
A. the view of the PDF documents any user will see on any system
B. your view of the PDF document
C. your view of all PDF documents
D. the printing of the PDF document Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 58
You want to change the font size of text by using the TouchUp Text tool.
You have highlighted the text.
What should you do?

A. Control-click (Mac OS) or right-click (Windows) and choose Properties
B. choose Tools > Print Production
C. choose Tools > Advanced Editing
D. Control-click (Mac OS) or right-click (Windows) and choose Create Artifact

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 59
You create a preflight profile that checks a PDF document to see if a custom halftone setting is used and flags it if an error is found. Which type of PDF document will be flagged with an error?
A. one with a process duotone in it
B. one with smooth shade gradients in it
C. one that uses any spot color
D. one that contains grayscale data

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 60
Which type of security policy allows individuals to limit the time period within which access to a PDF document is allowed?
A. user security policy on an Adobe Policy Server
B. organizational security policy on an Adobe Policy Server
C. password security policy
D. public key certificate security policy

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 61
You want to use the Zoom In tool to view a specific area on your document page. Which method automatically centers the area within your window?
A. select the Zoom In tool, hold down Option (Mac OS) or Alt (Windows) and click once
B. drag the Zoom In tool across the desired area
C. select the Zoom In tool, hold down Option (Mac OS) or Alt (Windows) and drag across the desired area
D. click once with the Zoom In tool

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 62
Which setting is needed to convert a Microsoft Office document to PDF document that will be used for high-quality printing?
A. Enable Accessibility and Reflow with Tagged PDF
B. Allow Bleed
C. Subset Embedded Fonts
D. Convert Colors to CMYK

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 63
Which is required to save a PDF document as a certified document?
A. a signature appearance
B. a digital ID
C. a password
D. a signature field

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 64
What does a Simulation Profile in the Output Preview panel do to color in a PDF document?
A. adjusts the on-screen color to more accurately represent the color as it will appear in the printed document
B. varies the dynamic range of the colors in the PDF, based on the monitor that is displaying the file
C. resets the color values in the file so that the color in the file will more accurately match what the document looked like on a computer monitor
D. converts the color from RGB to CMYK for faster display and more accurate reproduction

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 65
You choose File > Create PDF > From Scanner. You select Searchable Image as the PDF Output Style from the Recognize Text Settings dialog box. Which statement about the resulting PDF document is true?
A. The page is unchanged.
B. You are able to select text.
C. Graphic elements are removed.
D. The appearance of the page may change.

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 66
You are previewing color warnings in the Output Preview dialog box. A spot-color logo is set to overprint a colored background in the PDF document. What should you do?
A. use the Ink Manager in Acrobat to alias the ink used for the object to a non-overprinting ink
B. convert the job to process, so that the mix is not visible
C. reset the logo to knock out in the authoring application used for the project and remake the PDF
D. have the print vendor for the job reset the object in the RIP so that it no longer overprints

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 67
You want to change the font size of text by using the TouchUp Text tool.
You have highlighted the text.
What should you do?

A. choose Tools > Print Production
B. Control-click (Mac OS) or right-click (Windows) and choose Create Artifact
C. Control-click (Mac OS) or right-click (Windows) and choose Properties
D. choose Tools > Advanced Editing

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 68
How can you view two non-adjacent pages of a 10-page document at the same time?
A. choose View > Page Layout > Facing and scroll to the appropriate pages
B. choose Window > Spreadsheet Split and scroll to the appropriate pages in separate panes
C. choose Window > Split and navigate to the appropriate pages in the separate panes
D. choose View > Navigation Tabs and arrange your pages in the appropriate order

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 69
You want to create a custom preflight profile to determine if a PDF document is PDF/X-1a compliant. Which must be checked by the profile?
A. color model used
B. media size
C. file type
D. image resolution

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 70
You are creating an Adobe PDF document from a Microsoft Word document. Users will print the PDF document on laser and ink jet printers. You want to maintain print quality while minimizing the file size. From Word, you choose Adobe PDF > Change Conversion Settings. Which option should you choose from the Conversion Settings pull-down menu in the PDFMaker Settings panel?
A. Standard
B. Press Quality
C. High Quality
D. Smallest File Size

Correct Answer: A

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QUESTION 62
You are editing a video that will be viewed over the Internet through a Web browser. Which setting should you choose from the General submenu of the Project Settings dialog box?
A. 30 fps Timecode
B. 50 fps Timecode
C. 25 fps Timecode.
D. 29.97 fps Drop-Frame Timecode

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 63
A timebase setting of 24 has been set in the General submenu of the Project settings dialog box. Which type of footage is typically edited using that setting?
A. PAL format video
B. motion picture film
C. NTSC format video
D. SECAM format video

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 64
Which setting in the Audio Mixer window should you choose if you want to alter automation settings for some properties while leaving other properties unchanged?
A. Pre-Fader
B. Safe During Write
C. Show/Hide Tracks
D. Switch to Touch After Write

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 65
Which audio processing step occurs first when you import a project?
A. Premiere Pro applies effects to clips.
B. Premiere Pro processes track settings such as prefade effects, prefade sends, mute, etc.
C. Premiere Pro conforms its audio to the audio settings specified in the New Project dialog box.
D. Premiere Pro applies gain adjustments applied to clips by using the command Clip > Audio Options > Audio Gain.

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 66
Which automation mode in the Audio Mixer window should you use if you want automation to start only when you begin to adjust a value, and the value to remain where it is when you stop adjusting it.
A. Read
B. Write
C. Latch
D. Touch

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 67
What is the default crossfade between two audio tracks when you choose Sequence > Add Audio Transition?
A. Invert
B. Highpass
C. Constant Gain
D. Constant Power
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 68
How do you increase the volume of a clip?
A. boost the gain on your audio card
B. re-conform the audio and re-place the clip in the timeline
C. select Meter Inputs Only from the Audio Mixer palette menu
D. select a clip and then choose Clip > Audio Options > Audio Gain

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 69
You want to import an Adobe Photoshop image that contains blending modes while preserving the appearance of the image. What should you do?
A. Import the Photoshop image as a sequence.
B. Import the Photoshop image as a series of stills.
C. Import the Photoshop image as a single file, and choose the top layer in the Layer Options of the Import Layered File dialog box.
D. Import the Photoshop image as a single file, and select Merged Layers in the Layer Options section of the Import Layered File dialog box.

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 70
Which three options allow you to capture analog video directly into your project? (Choose three.)
A. Transfer your analog video via a Universal Serial Bus (USB)
B. Use an analog capture card that is certified with Premiere Pro.
C. Use a DV camcorder that supports IEEE 1394 output directly from analog input, and then capture using DV.
D. Use a DV camcorder with an analog video input, dub the analog tape to DV format tape, and then capture from the DV copy.
E. Connect your analog camcorder to the RCA or S-Video input of Adobe Premiere, and select the DV Input from the Device Control menu of the Capture screen.

Correct Answer: BCD QUESTION 71
You want to import CD audio into your project. What should you do?
A. Choose File > Capture and select CD Audio Device from the Device Control pop up menu.
B. Import the CDA file into your project and choose Clip > Audio > Conform to Project Settings.
C. Choose File > Capture > CD Audio, and select Current Project Settings in the Conform Audio dialog box.
D. Use a third party application to first convert the CD Audio to a supported format, and then import the audio clip

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 72
Which equipment does Adobe Premiere Pro support natively and is necessary for device control of an external digital video device?
A. a source videotape without timecode
B. a serial port connection on your computer
C. a IEEE 1394 cable that connects the device to the computer
D. a software driver for Windows Media Player or Apple Quicktime

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 73
Which action can be performed while using the Capture window and playing back a tape for viewing or capture?
A. Changing the scratch disk.
B. Logging clips to a batch list.
C. Entering information about the next clip.
D. Changing the folder where clips are logged.

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 74
Which is a valid use for a reference monitor?
A. Viewing multiple source clips at once.
B. Ganging the Source and Program views together.
C. Arranging the windows to simulate older versions of Premiere.
D. Viewing the sequence in a secondary monitor, usually for the purpose of color correction or color matching.

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 75
You want to add a new video clip to your timeline between two existing video clips. You do NOT want to lose any existing footage. Which editing technique should you use?
A. razor edit
B. insert edit
C. rolling edit
D. overlay edit

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 76
You want to adjust the edit point between two clips in your timeline. You do NOT want to adjust the total length of the sequence. Which editing tool or button should you use?
A. Extract button
B. Ripple Edit tool
C. Rolling Edit tool
D. Insert Edit button

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 77
What happens when you attempt to drag an audio clip (including audio linked to video) to an audio track of a different channel type?
A. Premiere Pro automatically generates or removes audio channels in the clip to match the audio track’s channel type.
B. A dialog box box appears, prompting you to resolve the problem by choosing another target track, or creating a compatible target track.
C. The clip is added to the track; however, Premiere Pro ignores or distributes audio channels in the clip according to the audio track’s channel type.
D. The audio clip (or audio component of a linked clip) automatically shifts to the next compatible audio track; if no such track exists, then an audio track of the appropriate channel type is created automatically.

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 78
You want to resize the Work Area Bar over a contiguous range of clips. What should you do?
A. Ctrl-click the Work Area Bar.
B. Double-click the Work Area Bar.
C. Alt-double click the Work Area Bar.
D. Context-click the Work Area Bar and select the appropriate option in the context menu.

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 79
Click the Exhibit button.
You want to insert Clip D (not shown) from the Project window into Video Track 2 at edit point 1. Which three steps should you choose? (Choose three.)

A. Right-click Clip D in the Project Window and choose Insert.
B. Place Clip D in the Source Window and click the Insert button.
C. Drag Clip D to the Project window to Edit Point 1 while holding the Alt key
D. Drag Clip D from the Project Window to Edit Point 1 while holding the Control key.
E. Select Clip D in the Project Window and choose nsert Clip at Zero Point?from the Project Window Options menu.

Correct Answer: ABD QUESTION 80
You want to export only the audio from a sequence in the Timeline window that contains both video and audio. What should you do?
A. right-click each video clip in the timeline, deselect Reveal in Project, and then export
B. click the eye icon to the left of any video clip in the timeline to remove it, and then export
C. set the properties in each video clip in the timeline to the appropriate setting, and then export
D. turn off the Show Frames selection in the Set Display Style area of the timeline, and then export

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 81
Under which circumstance should you choose Audio Units in the Source view menu?
A. To create a 1kHz tone for use in a video leader.
B. To display each track of a stereo clip separately.
C. To make an audio waveform appear in the Source view.
D. To set the Source view’s time ruler to audio samples, so you can set sample-based In and Out points.

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 82
Click the Exhibit button.
Your sequence has three clips. You want to move edit point 2 WITHOUT affecting any other edit points.
Which tool should you use?
A. Slip
B. Slide
C. Razor Edit
D. Rolling Edit

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 83
You want to evaluate the luminance levels of certain clips in a sequence. Which viewing mode would you use?
A. Alpha
B. Composite
C. Vectorscope
D. Waveform Monitor

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 84
You are looking at a timeline and CANNOT see the first frame of each video clip. You want to view the thumbnails of the video clips. What should you do?
A. click the Eye icon to the left of the video track
B. expand the video track by clicking the triangle to the left of a track’s name
C. right-click the clips in the video track and select Enable from the pop-up menu
D. right-click the clips in the video track and select Frame Hold from the pop-up menu

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 85
You are editing the middle of three adjacent clips. You want to shift the In and Out points of the clip forward or backward by the same number of frames by using a single action.
You do NOT want to change the duration of the clip or affect the adjacent clips. Which tool should you use?
A. Slip Edit
B. Slide Edit
C. Ripple Edit

D. Rolling Edit Correct Answer: A QUESTION 86
In which three situations should you choose the Automate to Sequence command in the Project window? (Choose three.)
A. To place clips on the timeline with your default effects and transitions applied
B. To automatically place transitions between clips that are already on the timeline
C. To automatically place the selected clips into the timeline at unnumbered markers.
D. To quickly assemble a rough cut in the timeline based on the sort order of the project bin.
E. To automatically place the selected clips into the gaps between clips already on the timeline.
F. To automatically place the selected clips into the timeline using the default transition between clips.

Correct Answer: CDF
QUESTION 87
A still image has a duration of 2 seconds in a project that is set to 30 frames per second. Which procedure will create a 2-second clip instead of 60 frames at 1/30 of a second each?
A. Select Optimize Stills in the Video Rendering submenu of the Project Settings dialog box.
B. Select Millions of Colors from the Color Depth menu in the Video Rendering submenu of the Project Settings dialog box.
C. Select an appropriate codec from the Compressor menu in the Video Rendering submenu of the Project Settings dialog box.
D. Select Scale Clips to Project Dimensions when Adding to Sequence from the General menu of the Project Settings dialog box.

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 88
Which setting in the General submenu of the Project Settings dialog box determines which video method is used to play back sequences and which compression methods appear in the Video Settings panel.
A. Timebase
B. Display Format
C. Editing Mode
D. Pixel Aspect Ratio

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 89
You are working on your sequence and realize that you chose the wrong preset when you started the project. The audio sample rate of your project is 32kHz, but the sample rate of your source media audio is 48kHz. You do NOT want to downsample your audio. What should you do?
A. Continue working, but make sure to export the project at 48kHz.
B. Nest the sequence in a new sequence that uses the proper sample rate.
C. change the audio sample rate to 48kHz in the General panel of the Project Settings dialog box,
D. Start a new project with the 48kHz setting and import the sequence you were working on into that project.
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 90
What is the purpose of the Unlink Media command in the Project menu?
A. To convert the selected online file to an offline file.
B. To remove any unused files in the Project Window.
C. To recapture the selected footage clip at the resolution of the project.
D. To take a single footage clip with audio and video and create two separate clips, one for audio and one

for video. Correct Answer: A QUESTION 91
Click the Exhibit button.
Which tool or command was used to create the highlighted file?
A. Adobe Title Designer
B. File > Export > Movie
C. Universal Counting Leader
D. Sequence > Render Work Area

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 92
The capture format options are NOT appearing in the Capture submenu of the Project Settings dialog box. Which setting has been selected from the Capture Format drop down menu ?
A. MPEG-2
B. QuickTime
C. Video for Windows
D. DV/IEEE 1394 Capture

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 93
For which task should you choose Project > Unlink Media?
A. log clips from a tape
B. make an online clip offline in order to recapture it
C. reset project settings without having to recapture video
D. break links between Adobe Photoshop and Illustrator files and Premiere Pro

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 94
When is the Apply Video Transition option in the Squence menu be available?
A. Anytime a clip is selected
B. Anytime there is a clip on the timeline
C. Anytime the Video Transitions Bin is selected
D. Anytime the the current-time indicator is on the edit point between two clips on your target track

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 95
Which menu allows you to set the default transition?
A. The Preferences menu
B. The Effects window menu
C. The Effects Control window menu
D. The right click menu on the transition

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 96
You want a title to fade in over a clip. What should you do?
A. select the clip in the timeline, then set opacity keyframes in the Effects window
B. select the title in the timeline, then set opacity keyframes in the Effects window
C. select the clip in the timeline, then set opacity keyframes in the Effects Control window
D. select the title in the timeline, then set opacity keyframes in the Effects Control window

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 97
Which three attributes can be adjusted when you use the Fixed Effects area of the Effects Control palette? (Choose three)
A. Tilt
B. Scale
C. Swivel
D. Rotation
E. Transform
F. Anchor Point
Correct Answer: BDF
QUESTION 98
Which three transition settings can be made directly in the Effects Control window? (Choose three)
A. Change the transition type
B. Change the default transition
C. Change the transition position
D. Change the duration of the transition
E. Change the in/out points of the A or B clip
Correct Answer: CDE
QUESTION 99
You want to copy a single effect from clip A to clip B. You do NOT want to copy all effects from clip A. What should you do?
A. select Clip A and choose Edit > Copy; then,select Clip B and choose Edit > Paste
B. select Clip A and choose Edit > Copy; then,select Clip B and choose Edit > Paste Attributes
C. Right click on clip A and choose Copy; then, right click on clip B and choose Paste Attributes
D. select Clip A, select the effect in the Effect Controls window and choose Edit > Copy; then, select Clip B and choose Edit > Paste in the Effect Controls window

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 100
You have copied a set of keyframes in the Effects Controls window. Where will the copied keyframes initially appear when you paste them in a second clip?
A. In the selected properties in the destination clip’s effect. The earliest keyframe appears at the current time, and the other keyframes follow in relative order
B. In the corresponding property in the destination clip’s effect. The earliest keyframe appears at the current time, and the other keyframes follow in relative order.
C. In the selected properties in the destination clip’s effect. The earliest keyframe appears at the beginning of the clip, and the other keyframes follow in relative order.
D. In the corresponding property in the destination clip’s effect. The earliest keyframe appears at the beginning of the clip, and the other keyframes follow in relative order.
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 101
Which portion of the timeline is represented in the Effect Controls window?
A. The duration of the timeline
B. The duration of the selected clip on the timeline
C. The duration of the work area set on the timeline
D. The duration of the active sequence on the timeline
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 102
Click the Exhibit button.
What happens if you position the cursor over the edit point of the transition graphic as shown in the exibit, and then drag the cursor left or right?

A. A ripple edit
B. A rolling edit
C. Change the transition position
D. Change the transition duration

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 103
You want to slow down the speed of a credit roll you have created as a rolling title in the Adobe Title Designer. What should you do?
A. decrease the length of the title in the timeline
B. increase the length of the title clip in the timeline
C. decrease the Speed value in the Object Style area of the Title Designer
D. increase the Y value of the title in the Transform area of the Title Designer

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 104
What is the purpose of the Sync to Timeline Timecode button in the Adobe Title Designer?
A. to lock the title to the timecode at the timeline marker.
B. to insert the title in Target Track at the timeline marker.
C. to preview the title over the video at the timeline marker.
D. to toggle the display of the timeline timecode as a text object

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 105
You are working in the Adobe Title Designer. You want your title to begin off screen, roll from the bottom to the top, and finish off screen. What should you do?
A. Create your text. Choose Title > Roll/Crawl Options and check Roll From Bottom to Top.
B. Create your text. Right-click the text box and choose Roll From Bottom to Top, and check Start Off Screen and End Off Screen.
C. Create your text. Right-click the text box and choose Transform > Roll/Crawl Options and check Start Off Screen and End Off Screen.
D. Select Roll from the Title Type pop up menu. Create your text. Choose Title > Roll/Crawl Options and check Start Off Screen and End Off Screen.

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 106
Which statement about a static title created in the Adobe Title Designer is true?
A. The title is saved with a .ppj file extension.
B. Logos added to a static title cannot be resized.
C. You must apply transparency to a title before bringing it into the timeline.
D. If you are creating a static title in content for the Web or for a CD, the safe title and safe action zones do not apply since you can see the entire video.

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 107
You want to ensure that a title will be completely visible on a television set. Which command should you choose?
A. Title > View > Safe Title Margin
B. Title > View > Safe Action Margin
C. Project > Project Settings > General > Title Safe Area
D. Project > Project Settings > General > Action Safe Area

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 108
You have created a shape in the Adobe Title Designer. You want to maintain the aspect ratio of the shape while dragging the boundries of the shape. Which modifer key should you use?
A. Shift key
B. Control key
C. Alt key
D. Control / Alt key combination

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 109
You want to create a smooth, semi circle text path. What should you do?.
A. Select the Ellipse tool, draw your ellipse; then, select the Type Tool to type along the ellipse.
B. Select the Pen Tool, draw your path; then, drag the anchor point handles to smooth your path.
C. Select the Pen Tool, draw your path; then, right-click the path and choose Smooth Anchor Points.
D. Select the Path Type Tool, draw your path; then, drag the anchor point handles to smooth your path.

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 110
You want to add an additional keyframe directly to a clip on the timeline.
You select the clip and set it to Show Keyframes for the filter you want to add a keyframe to. Which tool should you use to add a new keyframe to the clip?
A. left click the clip with the Pen tool
B. left click the clip with the Selection tool
C. Ctrl+left click the clip with the Pen tool
D. Ctrl+left click the clip with the Selection tool

Correct Answer: C

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QUESTION 67
You are creating a title in the Title Designer. You can see some video behind your title in the Title Designer window. You want to match the display to the video frame at the edit line in the Timeline window. What should you do?
A. click the Send Frame to External Monitor button
B. select the Show Video check box
C. click the Sync to Timeline Timecode button
D. choose Title > View > Safe Title Margin
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 68
Which question about capturing analog video in Adobe Premiere Pro is true?
A. Analog video must be converted to a digital signal before capturing it in Premiere Pro.
B. A stand-alone analog-to-video converter is necessary to batch capture analog video in Premiere Pro.
C. A single capture card can only capture either analog or digital video.
D. Premiere Pro removes timecode from analog video so it can be used by the application.

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 69
Which term is an invisible channel that defines transparent areas for the clip that contains the channel?
A. alpha
B. luminance
C. matte
D. keying

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 70
You are using device control with a non-DV device. You want to control this device direclty from Adobe Premiere Pro. Which is required?
A. a source videotape that was not recorded with its own timecode
B. a USB cable connecting the device to your computer
C. a high speed hard drive with fast data access times
D. a software plug-in for Premiere Pro from manufacturere of the non-DV device

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 71
When is the Apply Video Transition option in the Squence menu be available?
A. Anytime there is a clip on the timeline
B. Anytime the the current-time indicator is on the edit point between two clips on your target track
C. Anytime a clip is selected
D. Anytime the Video Transitions Bin is selected

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 72
You want to export your sequence to an NTSC DV movie for use in future NTSC DV projects. Which video options should you choose in the Export Movie Settings dialog box?
A. 720 x 480 Frame Size; No Fields (Progressive Scan); 15 fps Non Drop-Frame Timecode; Square Pixel (1.0).
B. 720 x 480 Frame Size; Lower Fields First; 29.97 fps Drop Frame Timecode; D1/DV NTSC (0.9) Pixel Aspect Ratio.
C. 320 x 240 Frame Size; No Fields (Progressive Scan); 15 fps Non Drop-Frame Timecode; Square Pixel (1.0).
D. 720 x 486 Frame Size; Lower Fields First; 29.97 fps Drop Frame Timecode; D1/DV NTSC (0.9) Pixel Aspect Ratio.

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 73
Your timeline is set to display keyframes. You want to set a new keyframe for a property in the timeline. What should you do?
A. Position the Selection tool over the keyframe graph line where you want to add the keyframe, and then Control-click.
B. Position the Pen tool over the keyframe graph line where you want to add the keyframe, and then Control-click.
C. Position the Pen tool over the keyframe graph line where you want to add the keyframe, and then click.
D. Position the Selection tool over the keyframe graph line where you want to add the keyframe, and then click.

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 74
You want to copy a single effect from clip A to clip B. You do NOT want to copy all effects from clip
A. What should you do?
B. Right click on clip A and choose Copy; then, right click on clip B and choose Paste Attributes
C. select Clip A and choose Edit > Copy; then,select Clip B and choose Edit > Paste Attributes
D. select Clip A, select the effect in the Effect Control window and choose Edit > Copy; then, select Clip B and choose Edit > Paste in the Effect Controls window
E. select Clip A and choose Edit > Copy; then,select clip B and choose Edit > Paste

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 75
When would you choose an option from the Audio Display Format pop-up box in the General submenu of the Project Settings dialog box?
A. to change the time division for the current project
B. to change the time division for the audio track(s) in all sequences
C. to change how the currently selected sequence displays time in the timeline
D. to change how all sequences display time in the timeline

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 76
You want to create transparency based on light or dark areas in your image. Which key should you use?
A. Difference Key
B. Chroma Key
C. Luma Key
D. Multiply Key

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 77
You are working with source footage that is NTSC DV captured via IEEE-1394. You plan to export your finished project for use on CD-ROM using the following settings: Window .AVI file; 320 x 240 Frame Size; 15 Frame Per Second.
Which project settings should you choose?
A. DV Playback Editing Mode; 720 x 486 Frame Size; Lower Fields First; 29.97 fps Drop Frame Timecode; D1/DV NTSC (0.9) Pixel Aspect Radio.
B. DV Playback Editing Mode; 720 x 480 Frame Size; Lower Fields First; 29.97 fps Drop Frame Timecode; D1/DV NTSC (0.9) Pixel Aspect Ratio.
C. DV Playback Editing Mode; 720 x 480 Frame Size; No Fields (Progressive Scan); 15 fps Non Drop-Frame Timecode; Square Pixels (1.0).
D. Video for Windows Editing Mode; 320 x 240 Frame Size; No Fields (progressive Scan); 15 fps Non Drop-Frame Timecode; Square Pixels (1.0).

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 78
Which media format is only available when exporting a timeline using the Adobe Media Encoder?
A. QuickTime
B. RealMedia
C. Microsoft AVI
D. Microsoft DV AVI

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 79
Which term is an invisible channel that defines transparent areas for the clip that contains the channel?
A. keying
B. alpha
C. luminance
D. matte

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 80
Which three attributes can be adjusted when you use the Fixed Effects area of the Effects Control palette? (Choose three)
A. Scale
B. Swivel
C. Transform
D. Rotation
E. Tilt
F. Anchor Point

Correct Answer: ADF
QUESTION 81
Which three options allow you to capture analog video directly into your project? (Choose three.)
A. Connect your analog camcorder to the RCA or S-Video input of Adobe Premiere, and select the DV Input from the Device Control menu of the Capture screen.
B. Use a DV camcorder with an analog video input, dub the analog tape to DV format tape, and then capture from the DV copy.
C. Transfer your analog video via a Universal Serial Bus (USB)
D. Use an analog capture card that is certified with Premiere Pro.
E. Use a DV camcorder that supports IEEE 1394 output directly from analog input, and then capture using DV.

Correct Answer: BDE
QUESTION 82
You have copied a set of keyframes in the Effects Controls window. Where will the copied keyframes initially appear when you paste them in a second clip?
A. In the selected properties in the destination clip’s effect. The earliest keyframe appears at the current time, and the other keyframes follow in relative order
B. In the corresponding property in the destination clip’s effect. The earliest keyframe appears at the beginning of the clip, and the other keyframes follow in relative order.
C. In the corresponding property in the destination clip’s effect. The earliest keyframe appears at the current time, and the other keyframes follow in relative order.
D. In the selected properties in the destination clip’s effect. The earliest keyframe appears at the beginning of the clip, and the other keyframes follow in relative order.

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 83
Which portion of the timeline is represented in the Effect Controls window?
A. The duration of the active sequence on the timeline
B. The duration of the work area set on the timeline
C. The duration of the selected clip on the timeline
D. The duration of the timeline

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 84
Which type of file is created when you choose Project > Export Batch List?
A. mp3 audio file (.mp3)
B. digital video file (.avi)
C. tab delimited text file (.txt)
D. comma separated value file (.csv)

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 85
Which setting in the General submenu of the Project Settings dialog box determines which video method is used to play back sequences and which compression methods appear in the Video Settings panel.
A. Pixel Aspect Ratio
B. Display Format
C. Timebase
D. Editing Mode

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 86
You are working with a sequence that will be exported to a movie for streaming Web playback. Which three encoding formats should you choose? (Choose three)
A. RealMedia
B. MPEG1
C. MPEG2
D. Windows Media
E. QuickTime
F. Microsoft DV

Correct Answer: ADE QUESTION 87
You want to advance five frames by using the playback controls in the Monitor window. What should you do?
A. Alt-click the Step Forward button
B. Control-click the Step Forward button
C. Shift-click the Step Forward button
D. click the Step Forward button

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 88
Which setting determines the speed of a rolling or crawling title?
A. length of the title in the Timeline window
B. the X position and Y Position in the Adobe Title Designer
C. number of complex graphics in the title
D. font size used in the title

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 89
You want to change the appearance of thumbnails in a sequence window. What should you do?
A. choose Timeline window options from the Timeline window menu and select an option for track display
B. Alt-click the header area of the track to toggle between track display options
C. choose Sequence > Preferences and select an option
D. click the triangle next to the name of the track to expand the track, click the Set Display Style button for the track and select an option

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 90
How many instances of the clip will be deleted if you delete the file that is selected?

A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 91
Which statement about audio sample rate in the Capture submenu of the Project Settings dialog box is true?
A. Audio should be captured at a lower rate than the final rate in the finished project.
B. Resampling the audio will not affect the quality of the audio.
C. Setting a different rate from the original audio will take less time for processing.
D. Higher rates generally provide better audio quality than lower rates.

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 92
Which transition setting for a wipe transition can be controlled from the Effects Control window?
A. changing the color of the border between the two clips that forms the edge of the wipe
B. deleting a transition between two clips
C. changing the type of wipe transition, such as from a clock wipe to a radial wipe
D. adding a transition between two clips

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 93
For which task should you choose Project > Unlink Media?
A. reset project settings without having to recapture video
B. log clips from a tape
C. break links between Adobe Photoshop and Illustrator files and Premiere Pro
D. make an online clip offline in order to recapture it

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 94
What is the default crossfade between two audio tracks when you choose Sequence > Add Audio Transition?
A. Invert
B. Highpass
C. Constant Power
D. Constant Gain

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 95
You are exporting the timeline using the Adobe Media Encoder as shown in the exhibit. What effect will decreasing the bitrate from 8.00 to 5.00 have?

A. Reduce the file size of the exported file
B. Reduce the number of fields in the exported file
C. Reduce the frame size of the exported file
D. Reduce the frame rate of the exported file

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 96
In which situation should you deinterlace video footage?
A. You are exporting for PAL TV
B. You are exporting for NTSC TV
C. You are exporting for broadcast
D. You are exporting for the Web
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 97
You want text in a title to follow a circular path. What should you do?
A. Draw the path with the Path Type tool, then start typing to add the text
B. Draw the path with the Ellipse tool, then add the text using the Path Type tool
C. Draw the path with the Path Type tool, then click on the path a second time with the Path Type tool,
and then start typing to add the text
D. Draw the path with the Ellipse tool, then add the text using the Type tool.

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 98
Which media format is only available when exporting a timeline using the Adobe Media Encoder?
A. QuickTime
B. RealMedia
C. Microsoft DV AVI
D. Microsoft AVI

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 99
How do you increase the volume of a clip?
A. select a clip and then choose Clip > Audio Options > Audio Gain
B. re-conform the audio and re-place the clip in the timeline
C. boost the gain on your audio card
D. select Meter Inputs Only from the Audio Mixer palette menu

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 100
You want to export your sequence to an NTSC DV movie for use in future NTSC DV projects. Which video options should you choose in the Export Movie Settings dialog box?
A. 320 x 240 Frame Size; No fields (Progressive Scan); 15 fps Non Drop-Frame Timecode; Square Pixels (1.0).
B. 720 x 480 Frame Size; Lower Fields First; 29.97 fps Drop Frame Timecode; D1/DV NTSC (0.9) Pixel Aspect Ratio.
C. 720 x 480 Frame Size; No Fields (Progressive scan); 15 fps Non Drop-Frame Timecode; Square Pixels (1.0).
D. 720 x 486 Frame Size; Lower Fields First; 29.97 fps Drop Frame Timecode; D1/DV NTSC (0.9) Pixel Aspect Ratio.

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 101
You want to use the alpha channel from Clip B on Video Track 2 to define the transparency of Clip A on Video Track 1.
What should you do?

A. Add the Image Matte Key Video Effect to Clip A and select Clip B as the Matte Image.
B. Right-click Clip A and select Define Alpha Channel; then, select Clip B.
C. Add the Track Matte Key Video Effect to Clip A and choose Video Track 2 as your matte.
D. Add the Alpha Matte Key Video Effect to Clip B.

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 102
Which menu allows you to set the default transition?
A. The Effects Control window menu
B. The Effects window menu
C. The right click menu on the transition
D. The Preferences menu

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 103
What is the purpose of the Sync to Timeline Timecode button in the Adobe Title Designer?
A. to toggle the display of the timeline timecode as a text object
B. to lock the title to the timecode at the timeline marker.
C. to insert the title in Target Track at the timeline marker.
D. to preview the title over the video at the timeline marker.

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 104
In which situation should you deinterlace video footage?
A. You are exporting for broadcast
B. You are exporting for NTSC TV
C. You are exporting for PAL TV
D. You are exporting for the Web

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 105
You are exporting the timeline using the Adobe Media Encoder as shown in the exhibit. What effect will happen if you decrease the quality from 5 to 3 have?

A. Reduce the time it takes to encode the file
B. Increase the quality of the exported file
C. Increase the time it takes to encode the file
D. Reduce the interlacing of the exported file

Correct Answer: A

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QUESTION 11
Which two tasks can you perform using Server Admin in Mac OS X Server? Choose two.
A. Manage share points.
B. Create user accounts.
C. Create NetBoot images.
D. Monitor the servers power usage.
E. Reset the password for a user account.
F. Configure services provided by the Mac OS X Server v10.6 computer.
G. Assign IP addresses to the servers network interfaces.

Correct Answer: AF
QUESTION 12
Review the image showing eight computers and their specifications, and then answer the question below.

Which two computers meet Apple’s official minimum requirements for installing Mac OS X Server v10.6? Choose two.
A. MacBook (2.0 GHz Intel Core 2 Duo) 2 GB RAM 20 GB available disk space
B. iMac (2.4 Ghz Intel Core 2 Duo) 4 GB RAM 9 GB available disk space
C. Power Mac G5 (1.8 Ghz) 8 GB RAM 50 GB available disk space
D. Power Mac G4 (867 Mhz) 2 GB RAM 25 GB available disk space
E. Xserve (2,8 Ghz Quad-Core Intel Xeon) 4 GB RAM 25 GB availabel disk space
F. Mac Mini (2.0 Ghz Intel Core 2 Duo) 2 GB RAM 12 GB available disk space
G. Mac Pro (2.8 Ghz) 2 GB ram
8 GB available disk space
H. MacBook Pro (2,66 Ghz) 4 GB RAM 2 GB available disk space

Correct Answer: EF
QUESTION 13
You are installing Mac OS X Server on a remote computer using Server Assistant. Which two passwords
should you use to try to access the remote computer?
Choose two.

A. 12345678
B. The remote computers IP address
C. The local computer’s root password
D. The first eight characters of the remote computer’s serial number
E. The first eight characters of the remote computers Ethernet ID (MAC address)

Correct Answer: AD
QUESTION 14
You want to combine two hard disks into a RAID configuration that will protect your data from hardware failure. Which RAID type should you choose in Disk Utility?
A. Striped
B. Mirrored
C. Journaled
D. Concatenated

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 15
You are setting up a Mac OS X Server computer as the only server in a small business. The server will provide web, file, and mail services only. Which server configuration should you select in Server Assistant to automate the configuration of those services?
A. Standard
B. Advanced
C. Workgroup
D. Small Business

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 16
Using Server Admin, which three events can you select to trigger an email alert from a Mac OS X Server
v10.6 computer to a system administrator?
Choose three.

A. A certificat is expired or is about to expire.
B. A user exceed his or her assigned disk quota.
C. The number of users exceeds a specified number.
D. New software update are available for the server.
E. The number of files on the server exceeds a specified number.
F. A disk has less than a specified amount of free space available.
G. An unsuccessful attempt is made to log in with the root account.
Correct Answer: ADF QUESTION 17
You want to remotely install and configure Mac OS X Server on a qualified Xserve computer. Which two pieces of information must you know about the Xserve to perform the remote installation and configuation? Choose two.
A. The Xserve model identifier
B. Whether a RAID card is installed
C. The number of installed hard drives
D. The Xserve computer’s serial number
E. The Ethernet hardware (MAC) address
F. The build number for the version of Mac OS X Server previously installed, if applicable
G. Whether the Xserve is on the same subnet as the computer on which Server Assistant will run

Correct Answer: DE
QUESTION 18
Review the screenshot of the Permissions pane in Server Admin, and then answer the question below.

You have assigned permissions to a folder, as illustrated. What access does the user, Pat, have to the folder?
A. Pat has read-only access to the folder.
B. Pat has write-only access to the folder.
C. Pat does not have any access to the folder.
D. Pat has both read and write access to the folder.

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 19
In Mac OS X Server v10.6, which of these can you create using Workgroup Manager?
A. realms
B. group wikis
C. share points
D. computer group accounts

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 20
Which user account attribute does Mac OS X Server use to identify the POSIX permissions that apply when a user attempts to read a file?
A. user ID
B. password
C. long name
D. short name

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 21
Which is an example of authorization in Mac OS X v10.6 and Mac OS X Server v10.6?
A. The User ID in a user account
B. A ticket-granting ticket in Ticket Viewer
C. The “Connect to Server” dialog in Server Admin
D. The list of available volumes displayed when connecting to a file service

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 22
In Mac OS X Server v10.6, which preferences can be managed for computers and computer groups, but NOT for groups or users?
A. Internet preferences
B. Application preferences
C. Energy Saver preferences
D. Universal Access preferences

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 23
Which user record attribute do ACLs use to identify the user to whom a permission is assigned?
A. UID
B. GUID
C. short name
D. primary group ID

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 24
Review the screenshot, and then answer the question below.

The highlighted item is called ________.
A. an access control list (ACL)
B. an access control entry (ACE)
C. a defined permissions setting (DPS)
D. a permissions definition entry (PDE)

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 25
What feature of Mac OS X Server v10.6 provides file permissions compatibility between Mac OS X clients and Windows NT clients?
A. NFS permissions
B. POSIX permissions
C. Access Control Lists
D. Samba Windows Registry
E. Embedded Permissions Controls
Correct Answer: C

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QUESTION 11
The Computer Name of a Mac OS X Server v10.6 computer located at alpha.pretendco.com is AlphaCN. The share point on the server is named AlphaSP. When users browse the network from the Finder on Mac OS X v10.5 and Mac OS X v10.6 computers, what name will they see?
A. AlphaCN
B. AlphaSP
C. alpha.local
D. alpha.pretendco.com
Correct Answer: A QUESTION 12
Which service’s status can you view using the Server Status widget in Mac OS X Server v10.6?
A. DNS

B. DHCP
C. Xgrid
D. NetBoot
E. Address Book
Correct Answer: E QUESTION 13
Which service does Xgrid perform on a Mac OS X Server v10.6 computer?
A. It schedules jobs to run across multiple computers.
B. It offers an end-to-end solution for capturing, encoding, and distributing digital media.
C. It monitors and manages the status of one or more Xserve computers, including their disk capacity, bandwidth usage, and active user accounts.
D. It allows two or more Mac OS X Server v10.6 computers to be linked, so that if one server goes offline, a linked server can automatically assume the offline server’s role(s).
Correct Answer: A QUESTION 14
Which statement describes a function of the Push Notification service in Mac OS X Server?
A. It transmits email and calendar data between servers.
B. It delivers notifications for email and calendar services to mobile devices.
C. It notifies the server when another server has updated calendar and email data.
D. It notifies the server when client computers are ready to send updated data to the server.
Correct Answer: B QUESTION 15
What is the function of the Mobile Access service in Mac OS X Server?
A. It synchronizes user home folders between the server and mobile computers.
B. It delivers notifications for email and calendar to mobile devices outside the firewall.
C. It provides mobile users secure access to the server’s private services without requiring VPN connections.
D. It copies network user accounts to portable computers to allow user to log into the computers even when the computers are not connected to a network.
Correct Answer: C QUESTION 16
Which task can you perform using Workgroup Manager in Mac OS X Server?
A. Manage share points
B. Create user accounts
C. Create NetBoot images
D. Monitor services provided by the server
Correct Answer: B QUESTION 17
In Mac OS X Server v10.6, which of these can you create using Workgroup Manager?
A. realms
B. group wikis
C. share points
D. computer group accounts
Correct Answer: D QUESTION 18
Which user account attribute does Mac OS X Server use to identify the POSIX permissions that apply when a user attempts to read a file?
A. user ID
B. password
C. long name
D. short name

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 19
Which is an example of authorization in Mac OS X v10.6 and Mac OS X Server v10.6?
A. the User ID in a user account
B. a ticket-granting ticket in Ticket Viewer
C. the “Connect to Server” dialog in Server Admin
D. the list of available volumes displayed when connecting to a file service
Correct Answer: D QUESTION 20
In Mac OS X Server v10.6, which preferences can be managed for computers and computer groups, but NOT for groups or users?
A. Internet preferences
B. Application preferences
C. Energy Saver preferences
D. Universal Access preferences
Correct Answer: C QUESTION 21
Which user record attribute do ACLs use to identify the user to whom a permission is assigned?
A. UID
B. GUID
C. short name
D. primary group ID
Correct Answer: B QUESTION 22
Review the screenshot, and then answer the question below. The highlighted item is called ________.

A. an access control list (ACL)
B. an access control entry (ACE)
C. a defined permissions setting (DPS)
D. a permissions definition entry (PDE)
Correct Answer: B QUESTION 23
What feature of Mac OS X Server v10.6 provides file permissions compatibility between Mac OS X clients and Windows NT clients?
A. NFS permissions
B. POSIX permissions
C. Access Control Lists
D. Samba Windows Registry
E. Embedded Permissions Controls
Correct Answer: C QUESTION 24
Review the screenshot of the Permissions pane in Server Admin, and then answer the question below.

Pat is a member of both the Employees group and the HR Training group. You have assigned permissions to a folder as illustrated. What access does Pat have to the folder?
A. Pat has read-only access to the folder.
B. Pat has write-only access to the folder.
C. Pat does not have any access to the folder.
D. Pat has both read and write access to the folder.

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 25
Review the screenshot of the Permissions pane in Server Admin, and then answer the question below. Pat is a member of both the Employees group and the HR Training group. You have assigned permissions to a folder as illustrated. What access does Pat have to the folder? 10

A. Pat has read-only access to the folder.
B. Pat has write-only access to the folder.
C. Pat does not have any access to the folder.
D. Pat has both read and write access to the folder.

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 26
Where do you configure service access control lists (SACLs) for Mac OS X Server v10.6?
A. In Workgroup Manager’s Sharing Access pane
B. In Server Admin, in the Access pane for the currently selected server
C. In Server Admin, in the Access pane for the currently selected service
D. In Workgroup Manager, in the Access pane for a user or group record
Correct Answer: B QUESTION 27
What is the maximum number of replicas of one Open Directory master that can be used in a Mac OS X Server v10.6 Open Directory infrastructure?
A. 31
B. 64
C. 256
D. 1024
E. 1056
Correct Answer: E QUESTION 28
You are the administrator of a Mac OS X Server v10.6 computer. In Server Admin, you click the Archive button for the Open Directory service. Which of these databases will NOT be archived?
A. Kerberos
B. LDAP Directory
C. Active Directory
D. Password Server
E. Local directory domain
Correct Answer: C QUESTION 29
A Mac OS X Server computer is configured to provide directory data to computers on a network. You are configuring another Mac OS X Server computer to be a secondary source for the directory data. Which role should you select for it in the Open Directory service in Server Admin’s Open Directory Assistant?
A. Connect to another directory
B. Set up a standalone directory
C. Set up an Open Directory master
D. Set up an Open Directory replica
Correct Answer: D QUESTION 30
Review the screenshot, and then answer the question below.You open Workgroup Manager and connect to a Mac OS X Server v10.6 computer that has been configured as an Open Directory master and is bound to another LDAP server. When you click on the Directory Domain pop-up menu, it displays the options shown in the screenshot above. Which option should you choose if you want to create network user records that will be used to log into computers bound to the Open Directory master?

A. Local
B. Search Policy
C. /LDAPv3/127.0.0.1
D. /LDAPv3/mainserver.pretendco.com
Correct Answer: C QUESTION 31
What token does a client present when authenticating to a kerberized service?
A. the user’s password
B. a client-generated service ticket
C. a service ticket obtained from the Key Distribution Center (KDC)
D. a ticket-granting ticket (TGT) obtained from the Key Distribution Center (KDC)
Correct Answer: C QUESTION 32
Why might a Mac OS X computer be unable to use Kerberos to access a Mac OS X Server v10.6 computer that has Kerberos enabled for file service authorization?
A. The client and server computer’s time settings are out of sync.
B. The client computer is not configured to use a static IP address.
C. The client computer is not configured to use the server as a DNS server.
D. The IP address of the client computer does not have a PTR record in the DNS server.
Correct Answer: A QUESTION 33
Which password policy can NOT be set for user accounts in Mac OS X Server v10.6?
A. Password must contain at least one letter.
B. Password must be reset at a specified time interval.
C. Password must differ from the last three passwords used.
D. Password must contain both uppercase and lowercase letters.
E. Password must differ from all passwords used in the past year.
F. Password must contain a character that is not a letter or a number.

Correct Answer: E QUESTION 34
Which utility can you use to display the status of Kerberos TGTs on a Mac OS X v10.6 computer?
A. Ticket Viewer
B. Server Admin
C. KerberosAgent
D. Kerberos Utility
E. Directory Utility
Correct Answer: A QUESTION 35
You are using Workgroup Manager to configure a user account in Mac OS X Server v10.6. You want the user to authenticate via Kerberos. Which password type should you select for the user account?
A. crypt
B. shadow
C. Open Directory
D. Kerberos Distribution

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 36
You have enabled AFP service on your Mac OS X Server v10.6 computer. You have chosen “Any Method” for Authentication in the Access pane. The server will attempt to authenticate file service users using which authentication methods, and in what order?
A. 1) Kerberos 2) SSH
B. 1) Standard 2) Kerberos
C. 1) Kerberos 2) Standard
D. 1) SSH 2) Standard 3) Kerberos
E. 1) Standard 2) Kerberos 3) SSH

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 37
The option to allow an administrator to masquerade as any user is enabled for the AFP service on a Mac OSX Server v10.6 computer. How does the administrator masquerade as the user Fred when connecting to the server?
A. The administrator authenticates using Fred’s user name and the admin user’s password.
B. The administrator authenticates using the admin user name and password, then chooses Fred’s volume in the AFP volume selection dialog.
C. The administrator opens /System/Library/CoreServices/AFP Connect, enters the admin user name and password, followed by Fred’s user name and password.
D. The administrator authenticates using the admin user name and password, then chooses Fred’s name from the Action pop-up menu in the AFP volume selection dialog.

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 38
A folder that resides on a Mac OS X Server v10.6 computer is being shared over both AFP and SMB. Why should you NOT enable oplocks on this share point?
A. If you enable oplocks, AFP users will not be able to write data to the share point.
B. If you enable oplocks, AFP users will not be able to connect to or mount the share point.
C. If you enable oplocks, files can be corrupted if they are accessed by AFP and SMB users simultaneously.
D. If you enable oplocks, SMB users will not be able to access files on the share point when an AFP user is connected.
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 39
What does the NFS service in Mac OS X Server v10.6 use for authentication when Standard is chosen from the Minimum Security pop-up menu?
A. IP addresses
B. MAC addresses
C. cleartext passwords
D. encrypted passwords
E. Kerberos service tickets

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 40
You are configuring NFS export settings for a share point that resides on a Mac OS X Server v10.6 computer. What does the “All to Nobody” mapping do?
A. It prohibits export of items and contents to users.
B. It creates the group, “Nobody”, that will be used for NFS access.
C. It tells the NFS server to identify all users by their client settings.
D. It provides all NFS users with the same file privileges as the “nobody” account.
Correct Answer: D QUESTION 41
You have configured the folder at /Shared Items/Documents/ as an NFS share point on your Mac OS X Server at server.pretendco.com. Which URL should you provide to Mac OS X users to allow them to access the share point?
A. nfs://server.pretendco.com/
B. nfs://documents.server.pretendco.com/
C. nfs://server.pretendco.com/Documents/
D. nfs://server.pretendco.com/Shared Items/Documents/
Correct Answer: D QUESTION 42
Your company has a set of site-licensed fonts in a folder named Fonts, on the share point, Resources, on your Mac OS X Server v10.6 computer. You are configuring the Resources share point so that these fonts will be automatically accessible by all your Mac OS X users. After you have enabled the Automount option for the Resources share point, how should you configure the share point in the automount configuration sheet?
A. Choose “Shared Library folder”.
B. Choose “Shared Applications folder”.
C. Choose “User home folders and group folders”.
D. Choose “Custom mount path” and enter “~/Library/Fonts” for the path.
Correct Answer: A QUESTION 43
You are setting up a Mac OS X Server v10.6 computer to store the home folders for 10 users. The computer has 510 GB of free space on the volume where the home folders reside. Which of these procedures will ensure that each user has an equal amount of storage space, yet leave at least 10 GB free?
A. In AFP service in Server Admin, select “Limit disk usage to”, and set the value to 50 G
B. B. In AFP service in Server Admin, select “Limit disk usage to”, and set the value to 500 GB.
C. In Workgroup Manager, in the Home pane for each user account, set the Disk Quota to 50 GB.
D. In Workgroup Manager, in the Quota pane for a group containing all of the users, set the Limit to 50 GB.

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 44
What protocol does Mac OS X Server v10.6 use to send email between mail servers?
A. POP
B. IMAP
C. MAPI
D. SMTP
E. XMPP
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 45
What protocol does the Mail application in Mac OS X v10.6 use to send email from a client computer to a mail server for delivery?
A. POP
B. IMAP
C. LDAP
D. SMTP
E. XMPP
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 46
You have set up multiple mail servers to receive email for your company. Which DNS record specifies the hostname of the mail server whose availability should be checked first when mail is being routed to an employee?
A. The A record with the priority number that is lowest
B. The A record with the priority number that is highest
C. The MX record with the priority number that is lowest
D. The MX record with the priority number that is highest
E. The PTR record with the priority number that is lowest
F. The PTR record with the priority number that is highest
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 47
Which of these is a blacklist server?
A. A server that provides a list of known open relay servers
B. A server that blocks outgoing email to specified domains
C. A server that sends mail to a large recipient group simultaneously
D. A server that allows anyone to send email through it without authenticating
E. A server that provides a list of email addresses that are known sources of spam

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 48
Which tactic will reduce the disk space required by mail service in Mac OS X Server v10.6?
A. Enable the mail service option to compress all incoming file attachments.
B. Set a mail quota to limit the amount of mail stored for each user account.
C. Set an alternate mail store location on a striped and mirrored RAID partition.
D. Enable the “Archive mail database” option for the mail service in Server Admin.
Correct Answer: B QUESTION 49
You are configuring users’ mail accounts in Workgroup Manager. Which option can you define for each user?
A. Mail filter type
B. Mail quota size
C. Mail workgroup name
D. Protocol each account will use to send mail to the server

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 50
You want to restrict access to certain pages of a website to a specific group of users. How do you password protect just a portion of your website?
A. Create a realm for the folder where the protected pages reside.
B. Assign sole ownership permissions of the website’s Documents folder to the user “www”.
C. Using Server Admin, create a second website that uses port 8080. Set the “Web Folder” setting for the new website to point to the folder of restricted content.
D. Create a group with the specified users, then set the permissions for the folder containing the protected content so that its “Group” is this new group, and “Everyone” has no access.
Correct Answer: A QUESTION 51
You have set up a website for your users on a Mac OS X Server v10.6 computer. To prevent others from logging into the server and accessing the website files in the Finder, you changed the Everyone permissions for all of the website files to None, made yourself the owner of the website files, and assigned group ownership of the website files to a group containing only your account. Now when users try to access the website via a browser they see an “Access forbidden!” message. Which group should have been given read access to prevent this error?
A. admin
B. root
C. staff
D. wheel
E. _www

Correct Answer: E QUESTION 52
Which statement about WebDAV is true?
A. You enable WebDAV for each website individually.
B. The URL to access a WebDAV server begins with “wdav://”.
C. You define the size of a WebDAV volume using Server Admin.
D. You can only connect to a WebDAV server using a web browser.
Correct Answer: A QUESTION 53
Which statement best describes the wiki in Mac OS X Server v10.6?
A. A wiki is a website that is configured to provide access to mail accounts.
B. A wiki is a series of date-stamped and chronologically-ordered entries on a website hosted by Mac OS X Server v10.6.
C. A wiki is a folder on a website hosted by Mac OS X Server v10.6, with permissions that restrict access to the files it contains.
D. A wiki is a collection of web pages that can be edited in a web browser; the web pages allow members of a group to share information.
Correct Answer: D QUESTION 54
Which statement about setting up a wiki on a Mac OS X Server v10.6 computer is true?
A. To allow a user to create a wiki, select the “Web Services” option in the Advanced pane for the user account in Workgroup Manager.
B. To enable a website on a Mac OS X Server v10.6 computer to host wikis, enable the wikiblog_module for the web service in Server Admin.
C. To allow members of a group to create a wiki, select the “Web Services” option in the Advanced pane for the group account in Workgroup Manager.
D. To enable a website on a Mac OS X Server v10.6 computer to host wikis, select the Wikis option in the Web Services pane for the website in Server Admin.
E. To enable all websites on a Mac OS X Server v10.6 computer to host wikis, enable the “Wikis and blogs” option in Web Services for the Settings pane for the web service in Server Admin.
Correct Answer: D QUESTION 55
Which protocol do clients of the iCal service in Mac OS X Server v10.6 use to access calendar files on the server?
A. AFP
B. FTP
C. NFS
D. SMB
E. HTTP
Correct Answer: E

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QUESTION 45
What TWO authentication options are available for the iChat service in Mac OS X Server v10.5?(Choose TWO – partial credit possible.)
A. NTLM
B. Standard
C. Kerberos
D. CRAM-MD5
E. Challenge-Response

Correct Answer: BC
QUESTION 46
In Server Admin for Mac OS X Server v10.5, what type of record should you add to the zone on your DNS server to associate a printers host name to its IP address?
A. Alias
B. Print
C. Service
D. Machine
E. Exchange
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 47
Which statement about the iChat service in Mac OS X Server v10.5 is true?
A. The iChat service decrypts all encrypted text messages that pass through it.
B. The iChat service uses an SSL certificate to encrypt audio chats between two iChat clients.
C. You must install an SSL certificate granted by a global certificate authority before you can enable iChat services encryption.
D. All iChat clients and the iChat service must install the same SSL certificate in order for text messages sent through the server to be encrypted between the sender and the receiver.

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 48
Review the screenshot, and then answer the question below. The highlighted item is called ________.

A. an access control list (ACL)
B. an access control entry (ACE)
C. a defined permissions setting (DPS)
D. a permissions definition entry (PDE)

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 49
Where do you configure service access control lists (SACLs) for Mac OS X Server v10.5?
A. In Workgroup Manager, in the Sharing Access pane
B. In Server Admin, in the Access pane for each service
C. In Server Admin, in the Access pane for a specific server
D. In Workgroup Manager, in the Access pane for a user or group record

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 50
You are configuring NFS export settings for a share point that resides on a Mac OS X Server v10.5 computer. What does the All to Nobody mapping do?
A. It prohibits export of items and contents to users.
B. It tells the NFS server to identify all users by their client settings.
C. It creates the group, Nobody, that will be used for NFS access.
D. It provides all NFS users with the same file privileges as the nobody account.

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 51
You want to install and configure Mac OS X Server v10.5 on a computer that has been added to your network. After the installation is complete and the computer restarts, which procedure will automatically configure the computer?
A. Save the configuration details as a text file, name the file config.plist, and store the file on the root of the Mac OS X Server v10.5 computers hard drive.
B. Save the configuration details as an entry in a directory service running on your network, with the MAC
address of the new Mac OS X Server v10.5 computer as the name of the record.
C. Save the configuration details as a text file, name the text file according to the server host name, and store the file on a Mac OS X file server that is on the same subnet as your Mac OS X Server v10.5 computer.
D. Save the configuration details in an XML file, name the file config.plist, and store the file on a volume that the Mac OS X Server v10.5 computer will see in the /Network domain when started up from the Mac OS X Install DVD.

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 52
In Mac OS X Server v10.5, configuring a preference in Workgroup Manager with the Often setting lets users ________.
A. define the number of times the preference setting can be changed
B. change the preference setting for the duration of their login session
C. make changes to the preference setting which persist beyond a single login session
D. change the preference setting, and set a date when the preference will return to its previous setting

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 53
What is the purpose of the federation feature in the Mac OS X Server v10.5 iChat service?
A. To allow admin users to send instant messages to all members of a given group
B. To allow iChat service users to chat with users of other instant messaging services
C. To automatically add all members of a group to the iChat buddies list for each group member
D. To allow users from different directory servers, including Active Directory, to use the iChat service

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 54
You want a Mac OS X Server v10.5 computer to use an XML configuration file to configure itself when it starts up for the first time. Which is a valid location to store the configuration file?
A. In /Users/Shared/Auto-Config/ on your DHCP server
B. In /Users/Shared/Auto-Config/ on any server on your network
C. In /Volumes/usbdrive/Auto Server Setup/ on the new server
D. On any Software Update server on the same subnet as the new server

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 55
In Mac OS X Server v10.5, which preferences can be managed for computers and computer groups, but not for groups or users?
A. Internet preferences
B. Application preferences
C. Energy Saver preferences
D. Universal Access preferences

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 56
Which tactic will reduce the disk space required by mail service in Mac OS X Server v10.5?
A. Enable the mail service option to compress all incoming file attachments.
B. Set a mail quota to limit the amount of mail stored for each user account.
C. Set an alternate mail store location on a striped and mirrored RAID partition.
D. Enable the Archive mail database option for the mail service in Server Admin.

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 57
How do you configure the iChat service hosted on a Mac OS X Server v10.5 computer to prohibit the members of a group account from using the iChat service?
A. In Workgroup Manager, select the group account, and turn off the iChat Account option in the Advanced pane. In Server Admin add the prohibited group account to the Deny Access list in the Settings pane for the iChat
B. service.
C. In Workgroup Manager, select all of the user accounts in the group, and turn off the iChat Account option in the Advanced pane.
D. In Server Admin, in the Services pane of the Access section for the server, select the iChat service, and add a group that contains all of the users except the prohibited ones to the Allow only users and groups list.

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 58
A folder that resides on a Mac OS X Server v10.5 computer is being shared over both AFP and SMB. Why is it vital that you NOT enable oplocks on this share point?
A. If you enable oplocks, AFP users will not be able to write data to the share point.
B. If you enable oplocks, AFP users will not be able to connect to or mount the share point.
C. If you enable oplocks, files can be corrupted if they are accessed by AFP and SMB users simultaneously.
D. If you enable oplocks, SMB users will not be able to access files on the share point when an AFP user is connected.

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 59
You used Workgroup Manager to define a set of managed preferences for the Guest Computers account on a Mac OS X Server v10.5 computer. To which computers will those preferences apply?
A. Only to computers named on the Guest Computers list
B. To any bound computer from which a user connects to the server with Guest access
C. To computers that are members of a computer list that has Guest access to the server
D. To any bound computer that is NOT a named computer or member of a named computer group on the server

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 60
On the Mac OS X v10.5 Server computer located at alpha.pretendco.com, you have set the Computer Name to AlphaCN. You have named the share point on the server AlphaSP. When Mac OS X v10.4 and Mac OS X v10.5 computer users browse the local network for your server using the Finder, what name will they see?
A. AlphaCN
B. AlphaSP
C. alpha.local
D. alpha.pretendco.com
Correct Answer: A QUESTION 61
What protocol does the Mail application in Mac OS X v10.5 use to send email from a client computer to a mail server?
A. POP
B. IMAP
C. LDAP
D. SMTP
E. XMPP

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 62
In Mac OS X Server, you configure password policies in ________. (Choose TWO.)
A. Server Admin, as part of the Server Access settings
B. Workgroup Manager, in the Basic user account pane
C. Server Admin, as part of the Open Directory settings
D. Workgroup Manager, in the Advanced user account pane
E. Workgroup Manager, as part of the Accounts preferences

Correct Answer: CD
QUESTION 63
You are configuring user’s mail accounts in Workgroup Manager. Which option can you define for each user?
A. mail filter type
B. mail quota size
C. mail list membership
D. mail workgroup name
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 64
Review the screenshot of the Permissions pane in Server Admin, and then answer the question below.
Pat is a member of the Employees and HR Training groups. You have assigned permissions to a folder as illustrated. What access does Pat have to the folder?

A. Pat has read-only access to the folder.
B. Pat has write-only access to the folder.
C. Pat does not have any access to the folder.
D. Pat has both read and write access to the folder.

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 65
What minimum network speed and installed RAM does Apple recommend for NetBoot clients of Mac OS X Server v10.5 NetBoot service?
A. 10 Base-T Ethernet and 256 MB RAM
B. 10 Base-T Ethernet and 512 MB RAM
C. 10 Base-T Ethernet and 1 GB RAM
D. 100 Base-T Ethernet and 256 MB RAM
E. 100 Base-T Ethernet and 512 MB RAM
F. 100 Base-T Ethernet and 1 GB RAM

Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 66
What key(s) should you hold down on a Macintosh computer during startup to make it boot from a default NetBoot image provided by a NetBoot server?
A. N
B. Option-N
C. Control-N
D. Command-N

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 67
You are setting up a Mac OS X Server v10.5 computer to host NetBoot images. How do you let users on client computers booted from the NetBoot service retain their personal system settings, such as preferred Dock location?
A. In Workgroup Manager, configure the user accounts to use a network home folder.
B. In Workgroup Manager, set the managed preferences for the user accounts to Never managed.
C. In Server Admin, configure the NetBoot service to store its shadow files on an AFP or NFS server.
D. In Server Admin, enable the Client Data option for the volume on the server that is hosting the NetBoot images.

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 68
Using Server Admin, what TWO protocols are available when you are configuring the automount for a share point?(Choose TWO – partial credit possible.)
A. AFP
B. FTP
C. NFS
D. SMB
E. HTTP
Correct Answer: AC
QUESTION 69
What protocol does Mac OS X Server v10.5 use to send email between mail servers?
A. POP
B. IMAP
C. MAPI
D. SMTP
E. XMPP

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 70
You are managing the web service on a Mac OS X Server v10.5 computer. The first website on the server is configured as the default website. You want to add a second website with the address web.example.com, which will publish documents stored in the WebDocs folder. You have created a DNS record for web.example.com. What THREE additional steps must you complete in Server Admin in order to publish the documents on the new website?(Choose THREE.)
A. Enable proxy caching.
B. Add a new site from the Sites pane.
C. Create a realm for the WebDocs folder.
D. Select the WebDocs folder as the site’s web folder.
E. Change the new website’s Domain Name field to web.example.com.
F. Add a new realm to define browsing/authoring permissions for web.example.com.

Correct Answer: BDE
QUESTION 71
You are the administrator of a Mac OS X Server v10.5 computer. In Server Admin, you click the Archive button for the Open Directory service. Which of these databases will NOT be archived?
A. Kerberos
B. LDAP Directory
C. Active Directory
D. Password Server
E. Local directory domain
Correct Answer: C

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QUESTION 11
You configured a Mac with OS X Mountain Lion to share its connected USB printer over the network. Why might a Windows user be unable to print to the shared printer?
A. The printer needs to be selected in the Print Sharing control panel on the Windows computer.
B. The Windows computer hasn’t been upgraded with the appropriate Service Pack.
C. Apple Print Services for Windows hasn’t been installed on the Windows computer.
D. OS X Mountain Lion doesn’t support sharing printers with Windows computers.

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 12
In order to bind your Mac to your company’s Active Directory server, you will need to enter the address of the Active Directory Domain, and _____________.
A. the domain name associated with your Mac
B. the Ethernet ID of your Mac
C. an Active Directory admin user name and password
D. your e-mail address

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 13
You want to migrate documents from a Windows computer to a new MacBook using Migration Assistant. Which step will prepare for that migration?
A. Connect an external hard drive to the Windows computer.
B. Connect both computers to the same network.
C. Connect the MacBook and the Windows computer to one another using a USB cable.
D. Start up the MacBook in target disk mode and connect the computers with a USB cable.
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 14
A default installation of OS X supports VPN over which THREE protocols? (Select 3 responses.)
A. SMTP
B. MPLS
C. LDAP
D. PPTP
E. L2TP over IPsec
F. VPNP
G. Cisco IPsec

Correct Answer: DEG
QUESTION 15
A MacBook Pro with Retina display has an unknown firmware password. How can you reset the password?
A. Take the MacBook Pro to an Apple Retail Store or Apple Authorized Service Provider.
B. Start up the MacBook Pro from the Recovery Disk and choose Reset Firmware Password from the Utilities menu.
C. Turn off the MacBook Pro, open it and change the configuration of its physical memory modules, then close it andturn it on again.
D. Start up the MacBook Pro and click Enter Master Password at the login window. Enter the computer’s masterpassword, and click Reset Firmware Password.
E. In System Preferences, click Start Up Disk, authenticate with an administrator account password, and click ResetFirmware Password.

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 16
Two days ago you connected a new USB hard drive to your Mac. Which procedure will configure Time Machine to back up your data to the USB drive?
A. Drag the USB hard disk icon from the desktop onto the Time Machine icon in the Dock.
B. Click the Time Machine icon in the Dock, select the new USB hard disk as the backup destination, choose ZIP fromthe Backup Format list, and click Start.
C. In System Preferences, click Time Machine, then click Select Disk, select the USB hard disk, and click “Use forBackup.”
D. Drag the USB hard disk icon from the desktop onto the Time Machine icon in the /Applications/Utilities/ folder.

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 17
Which files on a Mac does Time Machine, in its default configuration, NOT back up?
A. Applications
B. Files in ~/Sites/
C. Fonts installed in /Library/
D. Documents that you manually copied to the Time Machine volume

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 18
Which password was generated by choosing “Letters & Numbers” from the Type menu in Password Assistant?
A. mBOLq9dWSMLE
B. 741632465697
C. *90CJTLZ-oR’
D. chap5\soiree

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 19
You are using the Mail assistant on your Mac to add a Mail account that will access email from an Exchange account. Which TWO other types of data can you simultaneously configure OS X to access? (Select 2 responses.)
A. System keychains
B. Contacts
C. Browser bookmarks
D. Instant messaging accounts
E. Calendars
F. Network user accounts

Correct Answer: BE
QUESTION 20
From your Mac, you want to access mail, calendars, and contacts served by a Microsoft Exchange Server. What is the earliest version of Exchange Server for which Mountain Lion provides built-in support for this task?
A. Microsoft Exchange Server 2000 with Service Pack 4
B. Microsoft Exchange Server 2007 with Service Pack 1 Update Rollup 4
C. Microsoft Exchange Server 2003
D. Microsoft Exchange Server 2010
E. Microsoft Exchange Server 2003 with Service Pack 2

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 21
Which statement about Messages is true?
A. Without installing any additional software, Messages can be configured to use a Google Talk account.
B. Messages requires users to have an Apple ID account.
C. Without installing any additional software, Messages can be configured to use a Microsoft Live Messenger Talkaccount.
D. If a Mac user using Messages wants to exchange instant messages with a Windows user, the Windows user mustinstall the Messages application.

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 22
Using the Finder’s “Connect to Server” command on your Mac, you try to connect to a Windows file server, but receive an error message that there was a problem connecting. Which statement presents the most likely cause of this problem?
A. You must type “smb://” before the server address in the “Connect to Server” dialog to access a Windows file server.
B. It is not possible to access a Windows file server using the “Connect to Server” command.
C. You must install Boot Camp on your Mac to access a Windows file server using the “Connect to Server” command.
D. You must turn on Windows Support in the Sharing pane of System Preferences to access a Windows file serverusing the “Connect to Server” command.
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 23
In the context of computers on a network, what does “bind” mean?
A. Configure a computer to use a network account server.
B. Configure a computer to connect to a network.
C. Configure a computer to prevent it from accessing data on the network.
D. Configure a firewall on a computer to restrict inbound traffic.
Correct Answer: A QUESTION 24
Which of these provides directory and authentication services for Windows Server?
A. Active Directory
B. Exchange Directory
C. Open Directory
D. LDAP Directory

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 25
What happens if you select “Block all incoming connections” in the Firewall service options in OS X?
A. Files on your Mac that are shared using Personal File Sharing will be inaccessible to users on the network.
B. The Mail application on your Mac will no longer receive incoming messages from a mail server.
C. File servers on your local network will not be visible in the Finder’s network browser.
D. Your Mac will NOT be able to obtain an IP address from a DHCP server.

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 26
Which statement accurately describes the function of FileVault 2?
A. It keeps a journal that tracks all changes to a user’s files.
B. It encrypts a disk’s contents.
C. It backs up a user’s data to a specified volume on a specified schedule.
D. It stores a user’s home folder as an encrypted disk image.

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 27
Review the screenshot, and then answer the question below.

You have a Mac with the user accounts shown in the screenshot above. You want to configure the Mac to connect to an Active Directory server. In order to perform the configuration, you must authenticate as _____________.
A. Chris
B. Bob
C. Sam
D. Pat

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 28
Diego wants to run a Windows-based application on a MacBook Pro. What is a valid reason for him to use Boot Camp to do so, rather than a virtual solution like Parallels or VMWare Fusion?
A. Boot Camp lets Diego switch between OS X and Windows applications instantly, whereas virtual solutions requireDiego to restart his MacBook Pro in order to switch between the two environments and their applications.
B. Boot Camp does NOT require Diego to buy and install Windows in order to run Windows-based applications,whereas virtual solutions do.
C. Diego can buy Boot Camp on the App Store for $9.99, which is less expensive than the virtual solutions.
D. Boot Camp runs natively without hardware-resource contention on Mac computers, so Diego will see better overallperformance with Boot Camp than with virtual solutions.

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 29
Which protocol CANNOT be used to print from a Mac with OS X Mountain Lion to a network printer?
A. AppleTalk
B. SMB
C. IPP
D. HP JetDirect
E. LPD

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 30
What is the role of Bonjour in the Messages application?
A. To discover other Messages users on the local network
B. To communicate with AIM chat accounts
C. To communicate with GoogleTalk accounts
D. To stream video between Messages users

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 31
You are using Boot Camp to install Windows on your OS X Mountain Lion Mac. You will need an installation disc for _____________.
A. Windows 7 or later
B. Windows Vista or later
C. Windows XP or later

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 32
Moments ago you connected a new FireWire hard drive to your Mac. Which procedure will configure Time Machine to back up your data to the FireWire drive?
A. Click “Use as a Backup Disk” in the Time Machine alert dialog that appears when you connect the FireWire harddrive.
B. Drag the new FireWire hard disk icon from the desktop onto the Time Machine application icon in the / Applications/Utilities/ folder.
C. Open Time Machine, select the new FireWire hard disk as the back up destination, choose ZIP from the BackupFormat list, and click Start.
D. Drag your home folder to the new FireWire hard disk icon on the desktop.

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 33
You configured a Mac to print to a network printer that has a duplex unit. When you choose Print, the Print dialog does not display the two-sided printing option. To enable two-sided printing, you must _____________.
A. choose Print from the File menu, choose Printer Features from the Print Options pop-up menu, and then selectDuplex Printing Unit in the pane on the left
B. open Print & Scan preferences, select the printer, and then select Duplex Printing Unit in the pane on the left
C. choose Page Setup from the File menu, choose the printer from the Printer pop-up menu, then select DuplexPrinting Unit
D. open Print & Scan preferences, select the printer, click Options & Supplies, click Driver, and then select DuplexPrinting Unit

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 34
In OS X, the “Connect to Server” command in the Finder supports which TWO of these network file protocols? (Select up to 2 responses.)
A. P2PP
B. NCP
C. AFP
D. FTP
E. ADC

Correct Answer: CD
QUESTION 35
You are using Boot Camp to install Windows on a Mac. In addition to a Windows installation disc, you need a(n) _____________.
A. OS X Mountain Lion installation disc
B. PC with Windows 7 installed
C. blank CD or DVD, or external drive formatted as MS-DOS
D. UFS-formatted partition on the Mac

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 36
You have installed Boot Camp and Windows on your Mac. Which OS X System Preferences pane lets you set up the Mac to boot into Windows by default?
A. Users & Groups (Login Items tab)
B. Accessibility
C. Boot Camp
D. Startup Disk

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 37
Review the screenshot, and then answer the question below.

Using the interface shown in the screenshot above, how can you make a Mac generate a random password for you?
A. Click the Key icon to launch Password Assistant, and choose Random from the Type pop-up menu.
B. Control-click in the New Password field, and choose Random from the New pop-up menu.
C. Click the Change Password button, and choose Random from the New pop-up menu.
D. Option-click in the New Password field, and choose Random from the New pop-up menu.

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 38
You have installed Boot Camp and Windows on your Mac. Which Windows tool lets you set up the Mac to boot into OS X by default?
A. Boot Camp utility
B. Windows Boot Camp control panel
C. Mac OS Startup utility
D. Windows Startup control panel

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 39
What Windows Server technology provides directory and authentication services?
A. Exchange Directory
B. LDAP Directory
C. Active Directory
D. Open Directory

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 40
Which statement about iChat is true?
A. iChat can be configured to use a Google Talk account.
B. In order for a Mac user to use iChat to exchange instant messages with a Windows user, the Windows user must install iChat.
C. iChat can be configured to use a Microsoft Live Messenger account.
D. iChat requires users to have an Apple ID account.

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 41
In OS X Lion, where can you set the firmware password?
A. In the Firmware Password utility in the Utilities folder
B. In the Users & Groups pane of System Preferences
C. In the Firmware Password utility, after booting from the Recovery partition
D. In the Security pane of System Preferences

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 42
You are NOT able to access a Windows file server using your OS X computer’s “Connect to Server” command. What is a possible cause of this problem?
A. You need to select the “Windows support” option in the Sharing pane of System Preferences before accessing a Windows file server.
B. You need to prefix the Windows server address with “smb://” in the “Connect to Server” dialog.
C. It is NOT possible to access Windows file servers using the “Connect to Server” command.
D. You need to install Boot Camp on your OS X computer before accessing a Windows file server.

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 43
What is POP’s role in email transactions?
A. It lets mail clients retrieve email from the mail server.
B. It transfers outgoing email from the sender’s mail server to the recipient’s mail server.
C. It translates IP addresses into domain names, and vice versa
D. It provides user account information, including the email address associated with a particular user account.
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 44
In the context of computers on a network, what does “bind” mean?
A. Configure a computer to connect to a network account server.
B. Configure a firewall on a computer to restrict inbound traffic
C. Remove data from a hard disk so that the computer can be recycle
D. Restrict access to the files on a local hard disk.
E. Configure a computer to prevent it from accessing data on the network.
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 45
You have a Mac Pro with an unknown firmware password How can you reset the password?
A. Start up the Mac Pro from the Recovery volume and choose Reset Firmware Password from the Utilities menu.
B. Start up the Mac Pro and click Enter Master Password at the login window. Enter the computer’s master password, and click Reset Firmware Password
C. In System Preferences, click Start Up Disk, authenticate with an administrator account password, and click Reset Firmware Password
D. Turn off the Mac Pro, open it and change the configuration of its physical memory modules, then close it and turn it on again.

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 46
What is SMB?
A. A protocol used by iChat for video conferencing.
B. A protocol used to provide Windows computers access to shared files.
C. A protocol used to share a Mac screen with other computers.
D. A protocol used to send email messages.

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 47
Which password could have been generated by the “Memorable” option in Password Assistant?
A. 261508614394
B. 5WW1ou5CCcDn
C. bag0\copers
D. hyeleliehdau
E. wua&*T\EsXCX

Correct Answer: C

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QUESTION 47
Mac OS X v10.6 can read files on a volume that is ________-formatted, but it cannot write to files on the volume.
A. UFS
B. NTFS
C. EXT2
D. FAT32

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 48
Review the screenshot of a Finder window, and then answer the question below.

One of your users needs to maintain the project files whose titles are shown in the screenshot above. If these files will be stored on the startup volume of a Mac OS X v10.6 computer, which format should you use for the volume?
A. MS-DOS (FAT)
B. Unix File System
C. Mac OS Extended (Journaled)
D. Mac OS Extended (Case-Sensitive, Journaled)

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 49
What three storage schemes can you choose for your hard disk(s) from the RAID Type pop-up menu in the
version of Disk Utility that installs with Mac OS X v10.6?
Choose three – partial credit possible.

A. Striped RAID Set
B. Mirrored RAID Set
C. Adaptive RAID Set
D. Concatenated Disk Set
E. Striped with Parity RAID Set
F. Mirrored with Parity RAID Set

Correct Answer: ABD
QUESTION 50
You have a file with a resource fork on a Mac OS X v10.6 computer. You use the Finder to copy the file from your computer to a local volume that has a FAT32 file system. What happens to the information in the files resource fork when the file is copied to the FAT32 volume?
A. The information in the resource fork is stored in a second data segment of the file.
B. The information in the resource fork is copied to a second file on the new file system.
C. The information in the resource fork is stored as an extended attribute on the new file system.
D. The information in the resource fork is discarded from the copy of the file that resides on the new file system.

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 51
You are about to install Mac OS X v10.6 on a computer whose hard disk is formatted as a single volume. Which statement presents a rational motivation for repartitioning the disk into multiple volumes before performing the installation?
A. You want to manually specify volume block size.
B. You want to avoid using a dedicated swap file system.
C. You want to create a RAID 5 volume that includes the internal hard disk.
D. You want to run both Mac OS X v10.6 and Mac OS X v10.5 on the computer.
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 52
How can you find out which application the Finder will use to open a document?
A. Select the document icon in the Finder, and choose Show Default Application from the File menu.
B. Control-click the document icon in the Finder, and choose Show Application from the shortcut menu.
C. Select the document icon in the Finder, choose Get Info from the File menu, click the “Open with” disclosure triangle in the Info window, and note the application listed in the “Open with” field.
D. Open Finder preferences, and locate your document’s file type in the File Type column of the File Bindings list, then look in the Application column to find the application that the Finder will use to open your document.
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 53
Which statement describes how Spotlight performs searches on a volume in Mac OS X?
A. The MDResponder background process gets query results from the /Library/Spotlight/.Spotlight-V100.idx file.
B. The .Spotlight-V100 user daemon starts, and passes query results to an invisible cache file at the root level of the volume being searched.
C. The Spotlight process starts a user daemon called .Spotlight-V100, and passes the query results to an invisible cache file at the root level of the volume being searched.
D. The Spotlight daemon maintains an index database called .Spotlight-V100 for each user in their ~/ Library/ folder, and routes query results to the QuickLook server process.
E. The metadata server background process, mds, gets query results from a general index database stored in the /.Spotlight-V100/ folder at the root level of the volume being searched.

Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 54
A new, 5 MB file named text.rtf was backed up by Time Machine once, but the file has been edited since then, and is now 6 MB. It is about to be backed up by Time Machine again. How will Time Machine handle this backup?
A. Time Machine will copy the 6 MB file to the backup drive, and delete the original backup copy of the file from the backup drive.
B. Time Machine will copy the 6 MB file to the backup drive, and keep both the new backup file and the original backup file on the backup drive.
C. Time Machine will identify the 1 MB of file changes, copy those changes to a new file on the backup drive, and keep both the new backup file and the original backup file.
D. Time Machine will identify the 1 MB of file changes, copy those changes to a new file on the backup drive, then create a 500 KB parity file, and keep all three files: the two new files representing the 1 MB of file changes, and the original backup file.

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 55
How does Time Machine store the data from a Mac OS X v10.6 computer, when backing up to a directly-connected FireWire hard disk?
A. Each file is copied to a folder.
B. Each file is copied to a disk image.
C. Each file is stored as a record in a database.
D. Data from each backup is appended to a CPIO archive.
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 56
Where do most applications store their preferences in Mac OS X v10.6?
A. In a preferences database in the /Library/ folder
B. In a preferences database in each ~/Library/ folder
C. In .DS_Store files, at the root level of each ~/ folder
D. In individual files in each ~/Library/Preferences/ folder
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 57
How does the Finder in Mac OS X v10.6 identify the application it will use to open a file?
A. The Finder queries the Spotlight index.
B. The Finder consults a directory of Spotlight plug-ins provided by each application.
C. The Finder queries the volume catalog stored on the Mac OS Extended file system.
D. The Finder queries Launch Services, which queries a database in /Library/Caches/.
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 58
Which three folders’ contents are omitted by default from Time Machine Backups in Mac OS X v10.6? Choose three.
A. /etc/
B. /tmp/
C. ~/Downloads/
D. Library/Logs/
E. Library/Caches/
F. /System/Library/
G. ~/Library/Cookies/

Correct Answer: BEG
QUESTION 59
What Mac OS X v10.6 tool lets you enable system features that can help users with impaired vision?
A. Speech Utility
B. Accessibility Assistant
C. Finder’s Vision preferences
D. Universal Access preferences

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 60
What function does Rosetta perform in Mac OS X v10.6?
A. Rosetta allows X11 applications to run natively on Mac OS X v10.6.
B. Rosetta allows Cocoa, Carbon, and Java applications to use a common set of services.
C. Rosetta allows Intel-based Macintosh computers to run software written for PowerPC-based Macintosh computers.
D. Rosetta allows PowerPC-based Macintosh computers to run software written for Intel-based Macintosh computers.

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 61
Which procedure can help you identify an application that will run with Rosetta?
A. Control-click the application icon, and choose Display Environment; if the Finder displays the Rosetta icon, the application will run with Rosetta.
B. From the command line, run ls in the directory where the application resides; if the application type is X11, the application will run with Rosetta.
C. Click the application icon, then choose Get Info from the Finder’s File menu; if the Kind field says, “Application (PowerPC)”, the application will run with Rosetta.
D. Click the application icon, then choose Get Info from the Finder’s File menu; if the Application Environment field says, “Rosetta”, the application will run with Rosetta.
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 62
How does Boot Camp Assistant prepare a Mac OS X v10.6 computer for Windows installation?
A. It reformats the target hard disk as a FAT32 volume, then modifies the hard disk to act as a Windows startup disk.
B. It does not modify the target hard disk, but creates a disk image at the root of the target hard disk, and formats the disk image as a Windows volume.
C. It initializes the target hard disk with two partitions, and formats one partition as a Mac OS Extended (Journaled) volume, and the other as a Windows volume.
D. It resizes an existing partition on the target hard disk as needed, then creates a new partition on the hard disk, and formats the new partition as a Windows volume.

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 63
An application has become unresponsive, and will not quit. Which of these procedures is NOT a method for forcing an application to quit?
A. Open Activity Monitor, select the applications name from the list of processes, then click Quit Process.
B. Press Command-Tab until the application is in the foreground, then press Command-Option- Q and select Force Quit.
C. Choose Force Quit from the Apple menu, then select the applications name from the list of applications, and click Force Quit.
D. Hold down both the Option key and the mouse button while hovering over the applications icon in the Dock, and choose Force Quit from the shortcut menu.

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 64
You have both Preview and Adobe Reader installed on a Mac OS X v10.6 computer. Both applications can open PDFs. When you double-click a PDF file in the Finder, the file automatically opens in Preview. How can you set the file to open by default in Adobe Reader instead?
A. Edit the users FileBindings.plist file so that Adobe Reader is the value for the key, PDF.
B. Open Finder Preferences, select PDF under File Type, and choose Adobe Reader from the pop-up menu.
C. Hold down the Option key while double-clicking the file icon, and choose Adobe Reader from the dialog.
D. Select the file icon, choose Get Info from the Finders File menu, click the Open with disclosure triangle in the Info window, and choose Adobe Reader from the Open with pop-up menu.
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 65
Review the screenshot of an alert dialog, and then answer the question below.

You are using a forecasting application, Crystal Ball, on a Mac OS X v10.6 computer, when you see the alert dialog above. What will happen if you click Reset and relaunch?
A. The applications preferences file is deleted, the application is relaunched, and a new preferences file is created.
B. The applications preferences file is renamed, the application is relaunched, and a new preferences file is created.
C. The applications preferences file is unchanged, the application is relaunched, and a new preferences file is saved in a new location.
D. The applications preferences file is deleted, the application is relaunched with reduced privileges, and a new preferences file is created.

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 66
You type the hostname, “www.apple.com” in Safari’s address bar. If TCP/IP is configured manually, which DNS name server does your Mac OS X v10.6 computer query to identify the IP address that maps to that host?
A. The DNS name server assigned to the apple.com domain by ICANN.
B. Any DNS name server that resides on the Mac OS X v10.6 computer’s local subnet.
C. Any DNS name server on the same network router as the Mac OS X v10.6 computer.
D. A DNS name server specified in the Mac OS X v10.6 computer’s System Preferences.

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 67
Which information must you know about a corporate VPN server before configuring the VPN software on a user’s computer to access the corporate network?
A. If the corporate VPN server supports PPPoE.
B. If the corporate VPN server supports DNSsec.
C. If the corporate VPN server supports L2TP or PPTP.
D. Which network protocols will be encrypted by the corporate VPN.

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 68
Which IP address is a Mac OS X computer most likely to self-assign if no DHCP services are available on the network?
A. 127.0.0.1
B. 169.254.100.100
C. 172.16.100.100
D. 192.168.100.100

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 69
Which of these Network Utility modules can you use to determine whether a host at 10.37.129.2 on your LAN is responsive?
A. Ping
B. Whois
C. Finger
D. Lookup

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 70
Review the screenshot of a Network preferences pane, and then answer the question below.

What is the range of IP addresses in this computer’s local network?
A. 10.1.0.0 to 10.1.255.255
B. 10.1.5.0 to 10.1.5.255
C. 10.1.5.0 to 10.1.7.255
D. 10.1.5.1 to 10.1.5.256

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 71
Review the screenshot of part of a Network Utility window, and then answer the question below.

Which statement below accurately interprets the Network Utility Lookup results shown above?
A. The DNS server for mainserver.pretendco.com is pretendco.com.
B. A reverse lookup of 10.1.0.1 returns the name mainserver.pretendco.com.
C. A reverse lookup of mainserver.pretendco.com returns the IP address 10.1.0.1.
D. A forward lookup of mainserver.pretendco.com returns the IP address 10.1.0.1.

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 72
A Mac OS X v10.6 client computer is connected to both an Ethernet and an AirPort network. How do you specify which interface the computer will use to access the Internet?
A. Use Internet Connect to select the preferred interface, and disable the other interface(s).
B. Use the Set Service Order action to move the preferred interface to the top of the Service Order list.
C. Assign a public IP address to the preferred interface, and a private IP address to the other interface(s).
D. Enter a DNS configuration for the preferred interface, and delete the DNS configuration for the other interface(s).

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 73
You cannot connect to a web server from your Mac OS X v10.6 computer. How can Traceroute help you troubleshoot this issue?
A. Traceroute can determine if the web server is configured correctly.
B. Traceroute can determine if the DNS server is configured correctly.
C. Traceroute can determine if the server that the web service is running on has a firewall.
D. Traceroute can determine if each of the routers between your computer and the web server are
responsive. Correct Answer: D QUESTION 74 You want to configure a Mac OS X v10.6 computer to authenticate users using account information stored on an Active Directory server. On the Mac OS X v10.6 computer, where do you enter the information it needs in order to bind to the Active Directory server?
A. In the Open Directory plug-in the Directory Servers pane of Directory Utility
B. In the Open Directory tab of the pane that appears when you press the Advanced button in Network preferences
C. In the Active Directory tab of the pane that appears when you press the Advanced button in Network preferences
D. In the dialog that appears when you press the Network Account Server: Join button in Accounts preferences’ Login Options pane

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 75
Which of these can you use to determine whether there is network connectivity between your computer and a web server on the Internet?
A. Whois
B. Finger
C. Lookup
D. Traceroute

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 76
Which tool should you use to manually configure 100BASE-TX Ethernet on a Mac OS X v10.6 computer?
A. Console
B. Network Utility
C. Internet Connect
D. Network preferences

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 77
Web pages will not load on a Mac OS X v10.6 computer. Which three troubleshooting steps can help you
identify the cause?
Choose three – partial credit possible.

A. Verify network settings in Network preferences.
B. Confirm network connectivity using Internet Connect.
C. Confirm network connectivity using Network Diagnostics.
D. Test direct IP connectivity using Network Utilitys Ping command.
E. Confirm network activity using the Activity Report in Network Monitor.
F. Verify the presence of DNS servers on the network using Network Utilitys DNS Scan command.

Correct Answer: ACD QUESTION 78
In Mac OS X, what is authentication?
A. The process of accessing a computer over a network connection.
B. The process in which entities present their credentials to a computer to prove their identity.
C. The process in which a server determines the access privileges a specific user has to resources on a computer or network.
D. The process in which applications present their credentials to determine which files they can read and where they can write files.

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 79
Which of these is the result of an authorization denial?
A. The login window shakes after a user enters an incorrect password.
B. Finder displays an insufficient access privileges dialog when you try to open a folder.
C. Connect To Server displays an invalid password dialog when you try to connect to a share point.
D. Finder displays a dialog that says, “The disk ‘Data’ is in use and could not be ejected” when you try to eject a CD.

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 80
Which statement is true of Kerberos?
A. Kerberos requires LDAP.
B. Kerberos supports single sign-on.
C. Kerberos requires service discovery.
D. Kerberos sends your user name and password to each server you access.

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 81
When you enable File Sharing in the Sharing preferences on a Mac OS X v10.6 computer, which protocol
(s)
is (are) enabled by default? Choose all that apply.

A.
AFP

B.
NFS

C.
SMB

D.
FTP

E.
AFP and FTP

F.
AFP and SMB

G.
FTP and SMB

H.
NFS and FTP

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 82
You have enabled file sharing over SMB on a Mac OS X v10.6 computer. Before a user can authenticate via SMB with a local account on this computer, which additional step must you complete?
A. In Sharing preferences, add the user’s home folder as an SMB share point.
B. In Accounts preferences, change the user’s account type from Standard to Sharing.
C. In Sharing preferences, enable SMB sharing for the user account and enter the user’s account password.
D. In Directory Utility, enable new hash types for all user accounts, then reset the user’s account password in Accounts preferences.
Correct Answer: C QUESTION 83
Which items in a Mac OS X v10.6 file system are accessible to any guest user who connects to the computer via SMB?
A. The contents of /System/
B. The contents of /Users/Shared/
C. The home folder of all standard users on the system
D. The Public folder of all standard and admin users on the system
E. The Drop Box folder of all standard and admin users on the system

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 84
You enable Stealth Mode on a Mac OS X v10.6 computer’s firewall. How does this affect the computer’s behavior?
A. The computer will not respond to incoming connection requests.
B. The computer will not respond to diagnostic probes such as ping.
C. The computer will not register any services that are offered via Bonjour.
D. The computer will not allow outgoing connections for non-approved applications.

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 85
Authorization verifies ________.
A. a file’s creator and type
B. a user’s name and password
C. a resources availability to a user account
D. a computer’s membership in a computer list

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 86
Personal File Sharing is enabled on a Mac OS X v10.6 computer. Warren has a standard user account
and Tina has an admin user account on the computer. What two share points will be available for Warren
to mount when he connects to the computer via AFP?
Choose two.

A. /Users/Public/
B. /Users/Shared/
C. Tinas home folder
D. Tinas Public folder
E. Warrens home folder

Correct Answer: DE
QUESTION 87
Where in the Mac OS X v10.6 file system should a user, Pat, store a file in order to share it with network guests over AFP?
A. /Users/Sites/
B. /Users/Public/
C. /Users/Shared/
D. /Users/pat/Public/
E. /Users/pat/Shared/

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 88
Which two of these services can you turn on in the Sharing preferences in Mac OS X v10.6? Choose two – partial credit possible.
A. Telnet Login
B. Xgrid Sharing
C. Xsan Filesystem
D. Remote Apple Events
E. WebObjects Applications

Correct Answer: BD
QUESTION 89
You want to share your Mac OS X computer’s Internet connection with other computers over Airport. Which two settings can you configurer from the Internet Sharing pane in Sharing Preferences? Choose two.
A. WEP encryption
B. Network interface
C. Client IP adresses
D. TCP/IP port filtering
E. Network Adress Translation

Correct Answer: AB
QUESTION 90
When you enable Internet Sharing on a Mac OS X computer, which three network services start? Choose three.
A. NAT
B. SSH
C. DNS
D. DHCP
E. HTTP
F. WebDAV

Correct Answer: ACD
QUESTION 91
When file sharing is enabled on a Mac OS X computer, what items can a Sharing Only user access on this computer by default?
A. Files and folders in /Network
B. The Public folders of admin and standard users
C. The same items that local standard users can access
D. Optical media and external drives that are currently mounted on the computer
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 92
Which statement is true of both USB and FireWire bus technologies?
A. Both buses can host up to 127 peripherals.
B. Both buses can operate at speeds up to 800 Mbit/s.
C. Both bus technologies support only one type of connector each.
D. Both buses can supply power to low-power consumption devices on the bus.

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 93
How do you reset the Mac OS X v10.6 printing system?
A. Navigate to /Library/Printers/ in the Finder, select all items, and move them to the Trash.
B. Open Printer Setup Utility and choose Reset Printing System from the Printer Setup Utility menu.
C. Control-click in the Printers list of the Print & Fax preferences, then choose Reset printing system.
D. Open System Preferences, Option-click the Print & Fax preferences icon, and click Reset in the dialog that appears.

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 94
You have configured your Mac OS X v10.6 computer to share its connected USB printer. Mac OS X users can locate and print to it, but Windows users can not. What additional step must you take to allow Windows users to print to it?
A. In Sharing preferences, enable SMB file sharing.
B. In Print & Fax preferences, enable the SMB printer driver.
C. In Printer Setup Utility, enable Windows Printing from the Printers menu.
D. In Print & Fax preferences, configure the Windows Printer name and queue.

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 95
In what order do these Mac OS X components load at startup?
A. 1. Firmware
2.
Booter

3.
Kernel
B. 1. Booter
2.
Kernel

3.
Firmware
C. 1. Kernel
2.
Firmware

3.
Booter
D. 1. Firmware
2.
Kernel

3.
Booter
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 96
Review the screenshot, and then answer the question below.

You are starting up an Intel-based Mac OS X computer, and see the screen shown above. What does it mean?
A. The system’s firmware cannot locate a valid booter file.
B. The system has detected an unmountable Boot Camp partition.
C. Invalid startup modifier keys are being pressed on the keyboard.
D. The folder that holds all the user home folders cannot be located or accessed.

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 97
What is the role of the launchd process in the Mac OS X v10.6 system startup process?
A. The init process starts launchd, then launchd starts the scripts stored in /etc/chron/.
B. The kernel starts launchd, then launchd starts all the other processes involved in startup.
C. launchd starts the init process, then init starts all the other processes involved in startup.
D. The init process starts launchd, then launchd starts the items stored in the StartupItems folder.

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 98
When a user chooses Shut Down from the Apple menu, what process quits all of the user’s open applications and tells the kernel to power down the computer?
A. init
B. launchd
C. kernel_task
D. loginwindow

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 99
How do you start up a Mac OS X v10.6 computer in single-user mode?
A. Type the command reboot -single in Terminal.
B. Hold down the Command-S keys while the computer restarts.
C. Hold down the Shift-Option keys while the computer restarts.
D. Select Single-User Mode in the Startup Disk pane of System Preferences and restart the computer.

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 100

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information.

QUESTION 50
You have a file with a resource fork on a Mac OS X v10.6 computer. You use the Finder to copy the file from your computer to a local volume that has a FAT32 file system. What happens to the information in the files resource fork when the file is copied to the FAT32 volume?
A. The information in the resource fork is stored in a second data segment of the file.
B. The information in the resource fork is copied to a second file on the new file system.
C. The information in the resource fork is stored as an extended attribute on the new file system.
D. The information in the resource fork is discarded from the copy of the file that resides on the new file system.

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 51
You are about to install Mac OS X v10.6 on a computer whose hard disk is formatted as a single volume. Which statement presents a rational motivation for repartitioning the disk into multiple volumes before performing the installation?
A. You want to manually specify volume block size.
B. You want to avoid using a dedicated swap file system.
C. You want to create a RAID 5 volume that includes the internal hard disk.
D. You want to run both Mac OS X v10.6 and Mac OS X v10.5 on the computer.
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 52
How can you find out which application the Finder will use to open a document?
A. Select the document icon in the Finder, and choose Show Default Application from the File menu.
B. Control-click the document icon in the Finder, and choose Show Application from the shortcut menu.
C. Select the document icon in the Finder, choose Get Info from the File menu, click the “Open with” disclosure triangle in the Info window, and note the application listed in the “Open with” field.
D. Open Finder preferences, and locate your document’s file type in the File Type column of the File Bindings list, then look in the Application column to find the application that the Finder will use to open your document.
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 53
Which statement describes how Spotlight performs searches on a volume in Mac OS X?
A. The MDResponder background process gets query results from the /Library/Spotlight/.Spotlight-V100.idx file.
B. The .Spotlight-V100 user daemon starts, and passes query results to an invisible cache file at the root level of the volume being searched.
C. The Spotlight process starts a user daemon called .Spotlight-V100, and passes the query results to an invisible cache file at the root level of the volume being searched.
D. The Spotlight daemon maintains an index database called .Spotlight-V100 for each user in their ~/ Library/ folder, and routes query results to the QuickLook server process.
E. The metadata server background process, mds, gets query results from a general index database stored in the /.Spotlight-V100/ folder at the root level of the volume being searched.

Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 54
A new, 5 MB file named text.rtf was backed up by Time Machine once, but the file has been edited since then, and is now 6 MB. It is about to be backed up by Time Machine again. How will Time Machine handle this backup?
A. Time Machine will copy the 6 MB file to the backup drive, and delete the original backup copy of the file from the backup drive.
B. Time Machine will copy the 6 MB file to the backup drive, and keep both the new backup file and the original backup file on the backup drive.
C. Time Machine will identify the 1 MB of file changes, copy those changes to a new file on the backup drive, and keep both the new backup file and the original backup file.
D. Time Machine will identify the 1 MB of file changes, copy those changes to a new file on the backup drive, then create a 500 KB parity file, and keep all three files: the two new files representing the 1 MB of file changes, and the original backup file.

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 55
How does Time Machine store the data from a Mac OS X v10.6 computer, when backing up to a directly-connected FireWire hard disk?
A. Each file is copied to a folder.
B. Each file is copied to a disk image.
C. Each file is stored as a record in a database.
D. Data from each backup is appended to a CPIO archive.
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 56
Where do most applications store their preferences in Mac OS X v10.6?
A. In a preferences database in the /Library/ folder
B. In a preferences database in each ~/Library/ folder
C. In .DS_Store files, at the root level of each ~/ folder
D. In individual files in each ~/Library/Preferences/ folder
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 57
How does the Finder in Mac OS X v10.6 identify the application it will use to open a file?
A. The Finder queries the Spotlight index.
B. The Finder consults a directory of Spotlight plug-ins provided by each application.
C. The Finder queries the volume catalog stored on the Mac OS Extended file system.
D. The Finder queries Launch Services, which queries a database in /Library/Caches/.
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 58
Which three folders’ contents are omitted by default from Time Machine Backups in Mac OS X v10.6? Choose three.
A. /etc/
B. /tmp/
C. ~/Downloads/
D. Library/Logs/
E. Library/Caches/
F. /System/Library/
G. ~/Library/Cookies/

Correct Answer: BEG
QUESTION 59
What Mac OS X v10.6 tool lets you enable system features that can help users with impaired vision?
A. Speech Utility
B. Accessibility Assistant
C. Finder’s Vision preferences
D. Universal Access preferences

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 60
What function does Rosetta perform in Mac OS X v10.6?
A. Rosetta allows X11 applications to run natively on Mac OS X v10.6.
B. Rosetta allows Cocoa, Carbon, and Java applications to use a common set of services.
C. Rosetta allows Intel-based Macintosh computers to run software written for PowerPC-based Macintosh computers.
D. Rosetta allows PowerPC-based Macintosh computers to run software written for Intel-based Macintosh computers.

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 61
Which procedure can help you identify an application that will run with Rosetta?
A. Control-click the application icon, and choose Display Environment; if the Finder displays the Rosetta icon, the application will run with Rosetta.
B. From the command line, run ls in the directory where the application resides; if the application type is X11, the application will run with Rosetta.
C. Click the application icon, then choose Get Info from the Finder’s File menu; if the Kind field says, “Application (PowerPC)”, the application will run with Rosetta.
D. Click the application icon, then choose Get Info from the Finder’s File menu; if the Application Environment field says, “Rosetta”, the application will run with Rosetta.
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 62
How does Boot Camp Assistant prepare a Mac OS X v10.6 computer for Windows installation?
A. It reformats the target hard disk as a FAT32 volume, then modifies the hard disk to act as a Windows startup disk.
B. It does not modify the target hard disk, but creates a disk image at the root of the target hard disk, and formats the disk image as a Windows volume.
C. It initializes the target hard disk with two partitions, and formats one partition as a Mac OS Extended (Journaled) volume, and the other as a Windows volume.
D. It resizes an existing partition on the target hard disk as needed, then creates a new partition on the hard disk, and formats the new partition as a Windows volume.

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 63
An application has become unresponsive, and will not quit. Which of these procedures is NOT a method for forcing an application to quit?
A. Open Activity Monitor, select the applications name from the list of processes, then click Quit Process.
B. Press Command-Tab until the application is in the foreground, then press Command-Option- Q and select Force Quit.
C. Choose Force Quit from the Apple menu, then select the applications name from the list of applications, and click Force Quit.
D. Hold down both the Option key and the mouse button while hovering over the applications icon in the Dock, and choose Force Quit from the shortcut menu.

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 64
You have both Preview and Adobe Reader installed on a Mac OS X v10.6 computer. Both applications can open PDFs. When you double-click a PDF file in the Finder, the file automatically opens in Preview. How can you set the file to open by default in Adobe Reader instead?
A. Edit the users FileBindings.plist file so that Adobe Reader is the value for the key, PDF.
B. Open Finder Preferences, select PDF under File Type, and choose Adobe Reader from the pop-up menu.
C. Hold down the Option key while double-clicking the file icon, and choose Adobe Reader from the dialog.
D. Select the file icon, choose Get Info from the Finders File menu, click the Open with disclosure triangle in the Info window, and choose Adobe Reader from the Open with pop-up menu.
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 65
Review the screenshot of an alert dialog, and then answer the question below.

You are using a forecasting application, Crystal Ball, on a Mac OS X v10.6 computer, when you see the alert dialog above. What will happen if you click Reset and relaunch?
A. The applications preferences file is deleted, the application is relaunched, and a new preferences file is created.
B. The applications preferences file is renamed, the application is relaunched, and a new preferences file is created.
C. The applications preferences file is unchanged, the application is relaunched, and a new preferences file is saved in a new location.
D. The applications preferences file is deleted, the application is relaunched with reduced privileges, and a new preferences file is created.

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 66
You type the hostname, “www.apple.com” in Safari’s address bar. If TCP/IP is configured manually, which DNS name server does your Mac OS X v10.6 computer query to identify the IP address that maps to that host?
A. The DNS name server assigned to the apple.com domain by ICANN.
B. Any DNS name server that resides on the Mac OS X v10.6 computer’s local subnet.
C. Any DNS name server on the same network router as the Mac OS X v10.6 computer.
D. A DNS name server specified in the Mac OS X v10.6 computer’s System Preferences.

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 67
Which information must you know about a corporate VPN server before configuring the VPN software on a user’s computer to access the corporate network?
A. If the corporate VPN server supports PPPoE.
B. If the corporate VPN server supports DNSsec.
C. If the corporate VPN server supports L2TP or PPTP.
D. Which network protocols will be encrypted by the corporate VPN.

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 68
Which IP address is a Mac OS X computer most likely to self-assign if no DHCP services are available on the network?
A. 127.0.0.1
B. 169.254.100.100
C. 172.16.100.100
D. 192.168.100.100

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 69
Which of these Network Utility modules can you use to determine whether a host at 10.37.129.2 on your LAN is responsive?
A. Ping
B. Whois
C. Finger
D. Lookup

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 70
Review the screenshot of a Network preferences pane, and then answer the question below.

What is the range of IP addresses in this computer’s local network?
A. 10.1.0.0 to 10.1.255.255
B. 10.1.5.0 to 10.1.5.255
C. 10.1.5.0 to 10.1.7.255
D. 10.1.5.1 to 10.1.5.256

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 71
Review the screenshot of part of a Network Utility window, and then answer the question below.

Which statement below accurately interprets the Network Utility Lookup results shown above?
A. The DNS server for mainserver.pretendco.com is pretendco.com.
B. A reverse lookup of 10.1.0.1 returns the name mainserver.pretendco.com.
C. A reverse lookup of mainserver.pretendco.com returns the IP address 10.1.0.1.
D. A forward lookup of mainserver.pretendco.com returns the IP address 10.1.0.1.

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 72
A Mac OS X v10.6 client computer is connected to both an Ethernet and an AirPort network. How do you specify which interface the computer will use to access the Internet?
A. Use Internet Connect to select the preferred interface, and disable the other interface(s).
B. Use the Set Service Order action to move the preferred interface to the top of the Service Order list.
C. Assign a public IP address to the preferred interface, and a private IP address to the other interface(s).
D. Enter a DNS configuration for the preferred interface, and delete the DNS configuration for the other interface(s).

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 73
You cannot connect to a web server from your Mac OS X v10.6 computer. How can Traceroute help you troubleshoot this issue?
A. Traceroute can determine if the web server is configured correctly.
B. Traceroute can determine if the DNS server is configured correctly.
C. Traceroute can determine if the server that the web service is running on has a firewall.
D. Traceroute can determine if each of the routers between your computer and the web server are
responsive. Correct Answer: D QUESTION 74 You want to configure a Mac OS X v10.6 computer to authenticate users using account information stored on an Active Directory server. On the Mac OS X v10.6 computer, where do you enter the information it needs in order to bind to the Active Directory server?
A. In the Open Directory plug-in the Directory Servers pane of Directory Utility
B. In the Open Directory tab of the pane that appears when you press the Advanced button in Network preferences
C. In the Active Directory tab of the pane that appears when you press the Advanced button in Network preferences
D. In the dialog that appears when you press the Network Account Server: Join button in Accounts preferences’ Login Options pane

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 75
Which of these can you use to determine whether there is network connectivity between your computer and a web server on the Internet?
A. Whois
B. Finger
C. Lookup
D. Traceroute

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 76
Which tool should you use to manually configure 100BASE-TX Ethernet on a Mac OS X v10.6 computer?
A. Console
B. Network Utility
C. Internet Connect
D. Network preferences

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 77
Web pages will not load on a Mac OS X v10.6 computer. Which three troubleshooting steps can help you
identify the cause?
Choose three – partial credit possible.

A. Verify network settings in Network preferences.
B. Confirm network connectivity using Internet Connect.
C. Confirm network connectivity using Network Diagnostics.
D. Test direct IP connectivity using Network Utilitys Ping command.
E. Confirm network activity using the Activity Report in Network Monitor.
F. Verify the presence of DNS servers on the network using Network Utilitys DNS Scan command.

Correct Answer: ACD QUESTION 78
In Mac OS X, what is authentication?
A. The process of accessing a computer over a network connection.
B. The process in which entities present their credentials to a computer to prove their identity.
C. The process in which a server determines the access privileges a specific user has to resources on a computer or network.
D. The process in which applications present their credentials to determine which files they can read and where they can write files.

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 79
Which of these is the result of an authorization denial?
A. The login window shakes after a user enters an incorrect password.
B. Finder displays an insufficient access privileges dialog when you try to open a folder.
C. Connect To Server displays an invalid password dialog when you try to connect to a share point.
D. Finder displays a dialog that says, “The disk ‘Data’ is in use and could not be ejected” when you try to eject a CD.

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 80
Which statement is true of Kerberos?
A. Kerberos requires LDAP.
B. Kerberos supports single sign-on.
C. Kerberos requires service discovery.
D. Kerberos sends your user name and password to each server you access.

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 81
When you enable File Sharing in the Sharing preferences on a Mac OS X v10.6 computer, which protocol
(s)
is (are) enabled by default? Choose all that apply.

A.
AFP

B.
NFS

C.
SMB

D.
FTP

E.
AFP and FTP

F.
AFP and SMB

G.
FTP and SMB

H.
NFS and FTP

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 82
You have enabled file sharing over SMB on a Mac OS X v10.6 computer. Before a user can authenticate via SMB with a local account on this computer, which additional step must you complete?
A. In Sharing preferences, add the user’s home folder as an SMB share point.
B. In Accounts preferences, change the user’s account type from Standard to Sharing.
C. In Sharing preferences, enable SMB sharing for the user account and enter the user’s account password.
D. In Directory Utility, enable new hash types for all user accounts, then reset the user’s account password in Accounts preferences.
Correct Answer: C QUESTION 83
Which items in a Mac OS X v10.6 file system are accessible to any guest user who connects to the computer via SMB?
A. The contents of /System/
B. The contents of /Users/Shared/
C. The home folder of all standard users on the system
D. The Public folder of all standard and admin users on the system
E. The Drop Box folder of all standard and admin users on the system

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 84
You enable Stealth Mode on a Mac OS X v10.6 computer’s firewall. How does this affect the computer’s behavior?
A. The computer will not respond to incoming connection requests.
B. The computer will not respond to diagnostic probes such as ping.
C. The computer will not register any services that are offered via Bonjour.
D. The computer will not allow outgoing connections for non-approved applications.

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 85
Authorization verifies ________.
A. a file’s creator and type
B. a user’s name and password
C. a resources availability to a user account
D. a computer’s membership in a computer list

Correct Answer: C

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QUESTION 51
Which Switch 7700 command shows the prority used for input/output packet operations?
A. display priority-trust
B. display qos-interface all
C. display qos-interface traffic-priority
D. display qos-interface traffic-statistics

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 52
Which three can be used to download a configuration fole on the Switch 7700? (Choose three)
A. Use IP PROTOCOL
B. Use FTP protocol
C. Use TFTP protocol
D. Use HTTP protocol
E. Use XMODEM protocol
F. Use the system “dump” command

Correct Answer: BCE
QUESTION 53
Which two are syslog features/ functions on the Switch 7700 and Switch 8800? (Choose two)
A. Responsible for all system information on output
B. By default, the syslog automatically clears its file every 30 days
C. Is divided into eight levels, which can be filtered based on a level
D. Serves as an information center of the system’s software modules
E. Can be dumped to aconsole, monitor, SQL database or ASCII text file
Correct Answer: CD
QUESTION 54
Which four are Link Aggregation features/functions on the Switch 7700? (Choose four)
A. The switch supports the IEEE 802.3ad standard
B. Link Aggregation ports must be consecutive switch ports
C. Link Aggregation ports should be set to TRUNK or HYBRID
D. Use the “display interface” command to see all ports within a group
E. Use the “display link-aggregation” command to see all ports within a group
F. A Link Aggregation port should be set to “access” if more than one VLAN is supported on the link
Correct Answer: BCDF QUESTION 55
Which two Switch Fabric Engine LED conditions indicate there is a problem with the Switch 7700? (Choose two)
A. ALMLED is off
B. ALMLED is blinking
C. RUN LED is solid green
D. RUN LED is blinking green

Correct Answer: BC
QUESTION 56
When two PCs on the same Virtual LAN (VLAN) are unable to communicate with each other, which three procedures will help troubleshoot the Layer 2 Data Link issue? (Choose three)
A. Flush the IP routing table
B. Check the VLAN setting for each port
C. Check the LED status on each of the ports
D. Clear and reset the Spanning Tree Protocol tables
E. Flush the Address Resolution Protocol table
F. Check the bridge forwarding table to ensure the IP/MAC address assignment is correct

Correct Answer: BEF
QUESTION 57
Which four are hardware features/functions of the SuperStack 3 Switch 4900 Family? (Choose four)
A. Full/half duplex on all ports
B. Four traffic queues per port
C. Store and forward switching
D. GBIC interface for flexible cabling
E. 12,000MAC addresses per unit, 64 permanent
F. Smart auto-sensing across all multi-speed copper ports
Correct Answer: ABEF
QUESTION 58
Which four are switch configuration features of the Superstack 3 switch 4900 Family? (Choose four)
A. Configuration information is stored in a read-only file
B. Switch configuration can be stored or restored from a remote server
C. Up to three software images can be saved in the switch’s flash memory
D. The switch must be reset to the factory default before a configuration can be saved
E. Only a manager or security access level user can perform save or restor operations
F. All switch information is saved to the configuration file i.e, passwords, IP addresses, etc..
G. During the software upgrade the new image will always overwrite the standby image
H. The configuration of the Distributed Fabric is saved and restored with eXpandable Resilient Networking (XRN)
Correct Answer: ABH
QUESTION 59
XRN Technology v2.0 allows network architects to scale bandwidth capacity.
A. True
B. False

Correct Answer: A

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QUESTION 47
Which three are important considerations when configuring/calling a remote NBX phone connected via a cable modem or DSL link? (Choose three.)
A. Enable silence suppression and low bandwidth options in the NBX
B. Fixed or DHCP IP address can be assigned to remote NBX phones
C. An NBX gateway is required to support remote users without an NBX
D. All phone calls between the central and remote sites use Layer 2 IP packets
E. Network Address Translation (NAT) should be configured for the central site but NAT should not be used at the remote site
F. The Network Call Processor (NCP) can provide the remote phone an IP address for the duration of a call to a remote user
G. The Network Call Processor (NCP) can be configured to provide the local phone an IP address for the duration of a call to a remote user
Correct Answer: ABG QUESTION 48
Which three are NBX IP licensing features or requirements? (Choose three.)
A. Every NBX device requires a fixed IP address
B. A DHCP server is required to use IP On-the-Fly
C. IP On-the-Fly is included with all new NBX base systems
D. Companies can upgrade their license from IP On-the-Fly to Standard IP
E. IP addresses can be supplied via static or DCHP addressing when using Standard IP
F. An NBX phone can operate as a Layer 3 “IP Phone” on a per-call basis when using IP-on-the-Fly

Correct Answer: CEF
QUESTION 49
Which three bandwidth reduction methods are supported by the NBX system? (Choose three.)
A. Pulse Code Modulation (PCM)
B. Adaptive Transform Encoding (ATE)
C. ITU-T G.723 bandwidth compression
D. ITU-T G.729 bandwidth compression
E. Silence suppression on a per-device basis only
F. Adaptive Differential Pulse Code Modulation (ADPCM)
G. Silence suppression on a system-wide or per-device basis

Correct Answer: DFG
QUESTION 50
Which four are requirements for using Virtual Tie Lines (VTL) with an NBX system? (Choose four.)
A. VTL license is required for each participating NCP
B. Each VTL counts as one NBX device for device limit
C. Each NBX must have its own Network Call Processor (NCP)
D. VTLs require a T1 or E1 Digital Line Card in each NBX system
E. A maximum of 96 VTLs are supported on any one NBX system
F. VTL requires either IP On-the-Fly or Standard IP license for each NBX system
G. VTLs maintain Quality of Service (QoS) and provide end-to-end IP-ToS tagging
Correct Answer: ACFG
QUESTION 51
Which three are requirements for conference call support across Virtual Tie Lines (VTL)? (Choose three.)
A. Requires Standard IP license for each participating NBX system
B. Must use same range of multicast addresses on all NBX systems
C. Internet Gateway Multicast Protocol (IGMP) addresses must be defined
D. WAN routers must support Internet Gateway Multicast Protocol (IGMP)
E. Supports functions such as: Music on Hold (MOH) and internal page initiation
F. Requires Network Address Translation (NAT) configuration on Virtual Tie Lines

Correct Answer: BCD
QUESTION 52
Inbound NBX Computer Telephony Integration (CTI) calls support directory dialing and on-screen dialing and call processing.
A. True
B. False

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 53
Which four are features/requirements of the NBX Desktop Call Assistant (DCA) application? (Choose four.)
A. Requires Microsoft Windows 2000 or Windows XP
B. Requires one 3Com SKU and license per NBX system
C. Supports point and click dialing to any phone in the user’s directory
D. Provides personal inbound/outbound call logs with caller ID information
E. Uses Microsoft’s Telephone Applications Program Interface (TAPI) to manage calls
F. Computer with NBXTSP software must have a physical connection to an NBX phone
G. Users can manage all their calls from a single on-screen computer interface, for example, call transfer, conferencing, call park

Correct Answer: CDEG
QUESTION 54
What is Telephone Applications Program Interface (TAPI) Route Point?
A. An NBX feature enabled in the System / TAPI Setup menu that provides intelligent Layer 3 IP routing for TAPI messages on a multi-system, company-wide bases
B. Virtual Network Call Processor (NCP) device or third party application that monitors and maps incoming calls, allowing the NCP to make intelligent routing decisions for the call
C. Virtual device within the Network Call Processor (NCP) to which outbound calls can be mapped, allowing 3rd party applications to make intelligent routing decisions for the call
D. Virtual device within the Network Call Processor (NCP) to which inbound calls can be mapped for a 3rd party application that monitors the route point and makes intelligent call route decisions

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 55
Which four steps should be performed when installing the NBX pcXset application? (Choose four.)
A. Select country and language
B. Check that the pcXset licenses are installed using NetSet
C. Check and install Standard IP or IP On-the-Fly on the NBX system
D. Do an audio and microphone test from the pcXset Configuration Wizard
E. Create or update the Dial Plan to insure calls are properly routed to remote sites
F. Configure the IP and MAC address of the NCP associated with the pcXset application
Correct Answer: ABDF
QUESTION 56
Which three are features/requirements for using Unified Messaging for an NBX system? (Choose three.)
A. Requires NBX pcXset client software
B. Can use the computer’s default media player to listen to a message
C. APX messaging service functionality is provided by IMAP client on the NBX NCP
D. IMAP4 enabled clients Notes
E. Users can use an IMAP4 compliant application to access and manage voice messages on a computer
F. Requires a Windows-based PC with a minimum of 64MB RAM, full-duplex sound card, a microphone and headset
Correct Answer: BDE QUESTION 57
Which three does the Call Report (CDR) software provide for calls made on an NBX system? (Choose three.)
A. Track all call information
B. Track all incoming and outgoing PSTN calls
C. Track all internal calls within NBX system
D. Provides customer and department chargeback accounting
E. Track all incoming and outgoing attempted and/or abandoned calls
F. Collects telephone usage information on a per user / per call basis
G. Supports “Snap-in” modules for Microsoft Excel and Lotus 123 for integrated account reporting

Correct Answer: BEF
QUESTION 58
Which four are Call Report (CDR) configuration options for an NBX system? (Choose four.)
A. Default setting is Disabled
B. Scramble the last digits for security
C. Determine if trunk-to-trunk calls are recorded
D. Choose how often a new tracking file will be created
E. Select what data fields will be tracked, for example, time of call, length, etc.
F. Compatibility format option, for example, Microsoft Excel or Lotus 123 formatting
G. Determine how long the tracking information will be retained before it is purged by the system

Correct Answer: ABCG
QUESTION 59
How does the NBX administrator download the Event Log file for viewing?
A. Reports / Event Log – Download Log button
B. Downloads / Event Log – choose file name and Download Logs button
C. Click on Download Logs button
D. Reports / System Data / Event Log – choose file name and Download Logs button
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 60
Which three changes require an NBX system reboot? (Choose three.)
A. New software version
B. Removing an interface card from an NBX chassis
C. Change to NCP information, for example, IP address, default gateway
D. Change to network protocol, for example, Standard IP or IP On-the-Fly
E. Change to Digital Line Card protocol, for example, Standard IP or IP On-the-Fly
F. Adding any new interface card to the NBX chassis, for example, Digital Line Card, Hub card, etc.

Correct Answer: ACD
QUESTION 61
A NBX Software license upgrade provides access to the specific license purchased and every prior software release.
A. True
B. False

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 62
Which four are NBX configuration backup/restore attributes? (Choose four.)
A. By default, NBX voice mail messages are backed up
B. A Backup should be done after each major configuration change
C. By default, the backup is stored to the NBX hard disk
D. To run a backup choose: System Configuration / Manage Data and click Backup Database button
E. Data included in a backup: configuration database, Auto Attendant prompts, user voice mail greetings, and optionally, all voice mail messages
F. To restore the configuration information choose: Operations/ Manage Data then select Browse to locate the configuration file and Click Restore
G. To restore an individual user’s voice messages choose: Operations/ Manage Data input the users extension and click Restore Voice Mail Messages

Correct Answer: BCEF
QUESTION 63
Which four components are included with the NBX V3000 IP Telephony system? (Choose four.)
A. One Analog FXS port
B. 32 MB memory module
C. Four Analog FXO ports
D. 20 GB system disk drive
E. Two T1/E1 Digital Line ports
F. Network Call Processor (NCP)
G. Two 10/100 Mbps Ethernet LAN ports

Correct Answer: ACDF
QUESTION 64
What Power Status state indicates the NBX V3000 is currently booting?
A. Solid red
B. Solid green
C. Blinking red
D. Blinking green
E. Blinking yellow
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 65
What software version(s) is currently supported by the NBX V3000?
A. NBX R4.3
B. NBX R4.4
C. NBX R4.x
D. Same software versions as the NBX 100
E. Same software versions as the SuperStack 3 NBX
F. Same software versions as both the NBX 100 and SuperStack 3 NBX
Correct Answer: B

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QUESTION 47
Match each Radio Frequency (RF) propagation issue with its description.

A.
B.
C.
D.

Correct Answer:
QUESTION 48
Choose the three features supported by the 11g 54Mbps Wireless LAN Indoor Building-to-Building Bridge. (Choose three.)

A. Point-to-point or point-to-multipoint configurations
B. Multiple antenna options
C. Up to 108 Mbps in turbo mode
D. Wireless Distribution System (WDS) Bridging
E. Weatherproof enclosure

Correct Answer: ABD
QUESTION 49
Which antenna type is typically used indoors to provide large coverage areas within a building?
A. Patch panel or parabolic antenna
B. Dipole antenna
C. Omnipole antenna
D. Yagi or semi-directional antenna

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 50
Which three are provided by the 3Com Wireless LAN Site Survey V2.x for discovered access points (APs)? (Choose three.)
A. Type of authentication and encryption activated on the APs
B. APs available in your area
C. VLAN ID of each AP
D. IP address of each AP
E. Channel used by each AP
F. Radio type for each AP, i.e., 802.1a/b/g
Correct Answer: BEF
QUESTION 51
What is the first step a wireless station performs as it attempts to access a wireless network?
A. Beaconing
B. Active or passive scanning
C. Roaming and reassociation
D. Authentication

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 52
To configure encryption on an access point (AP) that is part of a Wireless Distribution System (WDS), you must configure each AP separately, using a wired-Ethernet connected computer.
A. True
B. False

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 53
The 3Com Wireless LAN Controller WX4400 provides high-bandwidth, centralized control for up to 144 directly attached managed access points (MAPs).
A. True
B. False

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 54
To use IEEE 802.1X Network Login for the wireless LAN (WLAN), you must configure both the 3Com access point (AP) and wireless LAN NIC for 802.1X authentication.
A. False
B. True

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 55
Which security protocol uses a hashed password for authentication rather than using a less secure encrypted password?
A. Extensible Authentication Protocol-Message Digest 5 (EAP-MD5)
B. Wired Equivalent Privacy (WEP)
C. 3Com Dynamic Security Link
D. Temporal Key Integrity Protocol (TKIP)

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 56
What is the process for determining the best installation design of a Wireless LAN (WLAN)?
A. Facility walk-through
B. WLAN analyzer
C. Site survey
D. Network discovery

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 57
You have launched the 3Com Wireless Infrastructure Device Manager (WIDM) software to configure your Wireless LAN Access Point 8750. When you see the access point (AP) on your PC screen, it has an exclamation point located to the left of the AP. What is the significance of the exclamation point?
A. The AP is still booting up
B. The AP does not have an IP address assigned or is in a different subnet from your PC
C. The AP has had a device failure and is non-operational
D. The AP is configured as a Managed Access Point (MAP)

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 58
Which best describes the purpose of the 3Com Wireless LAN Switch Manager (3WXM) “upload” command?
A. To perform an error check on a configuration file, then load the file from a 3Com Wireless LAN Switch/ Controller to the 3WXM
B. To deploy a configuration file from 3WXM to a 3Com Wireless LAN Switch/Controller
C. To load a configuration file from a 3Com Wireless LAN Switch/Controller into 3WXM, perform an error check on the file and place the unit into the network plan
D. To perform an error check on a configuration file, then deploy the file from 3WXM to a 3Com Wireless LAN Switch/Controller

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 59
What is dynamic rate shifting on Wireless LAN (WLAN) products?
A. Wireless devices that support packet bursting to increase throughput by sending more frames per a given time period
B. Automatic Turbo mode with up to 108 Mbps
C. Ability to dynamically support both IEEE 802.11b and IEEE 802.11g speeds
D. Wireless devices that automatically change the connection speed based on the quality of the signal

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 60
What is the estimated Mbps speed achieved with an IEEE 802.11a access point at the maximum distance of 50 meters (164 feet)?
A. 12 Mbps
B. 6 Mbps
C. 2 Mbps
D. 36 Mbps
E. 54 Mbps

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 61

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QUESTION 50
Which utility allows you to configure the DHCP service on SecurePlatform from the command line?
A. cpconfig
B. ifconfig
C. dhcp_cfg
D. sysconfig

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 51
The third-shift Administrator was updating Security Management Server access settings in Global Properties and testing. He managed to lock himself out of his account. How can you unlock this account?
A. Delete the file admin.lock in the Security Management Server directory $FWDIR/tmp/.
B. Type fwm lock_admin -u <account name> from the Security Management Server command line.
C. Type fwm unlock_admin -u from the Security Gateway command line.
D. Type fwm unlock_admin from the Security Management Server command line.

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 52
The third-shift Administrator was updating Security Management Server access settings in Global Properties. He managed to lock all administrators out of their accounts. How should you unlock these accounts?
A. Reinstall the Security Management Server and restore using upgrade_import.
B. Delete the file admin.lock in the Security Management Server directory $FWDIR/tmp/.
C. Type fwm lock_admin -ua from the Security Management Server command line.
D. Login to SmartDashboard as the special cpconfig_admin user account; right-click on each administrator object and select unlock.

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 53
You are the Security Administrator for ABC-Corp. A Check Point Firewall is installed and in use on SecurePlatform. You are concerned that the system might not be retaining your entries for the interfaces and routing configuration. You would like to verify your entries in the corresponding file(s) on SecurePlatform. Where can you view them? Give the BEST answer.
A. /etc/conf/route.C
B. /etc/sysconfig/network-scripts/ifcfg-ethx
C. /etc/sysconfig/netconf.C
D. /etc/sysconfig/network

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 54
When using SecurePlatform, it might be necessary to temporarily change the MAC address of the interface eth 0 to 00:0C:29:12:34:56. After restarting the network the old MAC address should be active. How do you configure this change?
A. Edit the file /etc/sysconfig/netconf.C and put the new MAC address in the field
B. As expert user, issue these commands: # IP link set eth0 down # IP link set eth0 addr 00:0C:29:12:34:56 # IP link set eth0 up
C. Open the WebUI, select Network > Connections > eth0. Place the new MAC address in the field Physical Address, and press Apply to save the settings.
D. As expert user, issue the command: # IP link set eth0 addr 00:0C:29:12:34:56

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 55
Several Security Policies can be used for different installation targets. The Firewall protecting Human Resources’ servers should have its own Policy Package. These rules must be installed on this machine and not on the Internet Firewall. How can this be accomplished?
A. A Rule Base is always installed on all possible targets. The rules to be installed on a Firewall are defined by the selection in the Rule Base row Install On.
B. A Rule Base can always be installed on any Check Point Firewall object. It is necessary to select the appropriate target directly after selecting Policy > Install on Target.
C. When selecting the correct Firewall in each line of the Rule Base row Install On, only this Firewall is shown in the list of possible installation targets after selecting Policy > Install on Target.
D. In the menu of SmartDashboard, go to Policy > Policy Installation Targets and select the correct firewall via Specific Targets.
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 56
Where is the IPSO Boot Manager physically located on an IP Appliance?
A. On the platform’s BIOS
B. In the directory /nvram
C. On an external jump drive
D. On built-in compact Flash memory
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 57
How is wear on the flash storage device mitigated on diskless appliance platforms?
A. The external PCMCIA-based flash extension has the swap file mapped to it, allowing easy replacement.
B. A RAM drive reduces the swap file thrashing which causes fast wear on the device.
C. Issue FW-1 bases its package structure on the Security Management Server, dynamically loading when the firewall is booted.
D. PRAM flash devices are used, eliminating the longevity.

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 58
Your R76 primary Security Management Server is installed on GAiA. You plan to schedule the Security Management Server to run fw logswitch automatically every 48 hours. How do you create this schedule?
A. Create a time object, and add 48 hours as the interval. Select that time object’s Global Properties > Logs and Masters window, to schedule a logswitch.
B. Create a time object, and add 48 hours as the interval. Open the primary Security Management Server object’s Logs and Masters window, enable Schedule log switch, and select the Time object.
C. On a SecurePlatform Security Management Server, this can only be accomplished by configuring the command fw logswitch via the cron utility.
D. Create a time object, and add 48 hours as the interval. Open the Security Gateway object’s Logs and Masters window, enable Schedule log switch, and select the Time object.

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 59
Which of the following methods will provide the most complete backup of an R75 configuration?
A. Execute command upgrade_export
B. Database Revision Control
C. Policy Package Management
D. Copying the directories $FWDIR\conf and $CPDIR\conf to another server

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 60
Which of the following commands can provide the most complete restoration of a R76 configuration?
A. cpinfo -recover
B. fwm dbimport -p <export file>
C. upgrade_import
D. cpconfig

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 61
When restoring R76 using the command upgrade_import, which of the following items are NOT restored?
A. Licenses
B. SIC Certificates
C. Global properties
D. Route tables

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 62
Your organization’s disaster recovery plan needs an update to the backup and restore section to reap the new distributed R76 installation benefits. Your plan must meet the following required and desired objectives:
Required ObjectivE.
The Security Policy repository must be backed up no less frequently than
every 24 hours.

Desired ObjectivE.
The R76 components that enforce the Security Policies should be backed up at
least once a week.

Desired ObjectivE.
Back up R76 logs at least once a week.

Your disaster recovery plan is as follows:

-Use the cron utility to run the command upgrade_export each night on the Security Management Servers.

Configure the organization’s routine back up software to back up the files created by the Checkpoint 156-215.13 Exam BrainDumps.com 25 command upgrade_export.


Configure the GAiA back up utility to back up the Security Gateways every Saturday night.
-Use the cron utility to run the command upgrade_export each Saturday night on the log servers.

Configure an automatic, nightly logswitch.


Configure the organization’s routine back up software to back up the switched logs every night.
Upon evaluation, your plan:
A. Meets the required objective and only one desired objective.
B. Meets the required objective but does not meet either desired objective.
C. Meets the required objective and both desired objectives.
D. Does not meet the required objective.

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 63
Your company is running Security Management Server R76 on GAiA, which has been migrated through each version starting from Check Point 4.1. How do you add a new administrator account?
A. Using cpconfig on the Security Management Server, choose Administrators
B. Using SmartDashboard, under Users, select Add New Administrator
C. Using the Web console on SecurePlatform under Product configuration, select Administrators
D. Using SmartDashboard or cpconfig

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 64
Peter is your new Security Administrator. On his first working day, he is very nervous and enters the wrong password three times. His account is locked. What can be done to unlock Peter’s account? Give the BEST answer.
A. It is not possible to unlock Peter’s account. You have to install the firewall once again or abstain
B. You can unlock Peter’s account by using the command fwm unlock_admin -u Peter on the Security Gateway.
C. You can unlock Peter’s account by using the command fwm lock_admin -u Peter on the Security Management Server
D. You can unlock Peter’s account by using the command fwm unlock_admin -u Peter on the Security Management Server
Correct Answer: C QUESTION 65
Where can you find the Check Point’s SNMP MIB file?
A. $CPDIR/lib/snmp/chkpt.mib
B. There is no specific MIB file for Check Point products.
C. $FWDIR/conf/snmp.mib
D. It is obtained only by request from the TAC.

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 66
You want to generate a cpinfo file via CLI on a system running GAiA. This will take about 40 minutes since the log files are also needed. What action do you need to take regarding timeout?
A. Log in as Administrator, set the timeout to one hour with the command idle 60 and start cpinfo.
B. Log in as the default user expert and start cpinfo.
C. No action is needed because cpshell has a timeout of one hour by default.
D. Log in as admin, switch to expert mode, set the timeout to one hour with the command, idle 60, then start cpinfo.

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 67
Many companies have defined more than one administrator. To increase security, only one administrator should be able to install a Rule Base on a specific Firewall. How do you configure this?
A. Define a permission profile in SmartDashboard with read/write privileges, but restrict it to all other firewalls by placing them in the Policy Targets field. Then, an administrator with this permission profile cannot install a policy on any Firewall not listed here.
B. Put the one administrator in an Administrator group and configure this group in the specific Firewall object in Advanced > Permission to Install.
C. Right-click on the object representing the specific administrator, and select that Firewall in Policy Targets.
D. In the object General Properties representing the specific Firewall, go to the Software Blades product list and select Firewall. Right-click in the menu, select Administrator to Install to define only this administrator.
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 68
What is the officially accepted diagnostic tool for IP Appliance Support?
A. ipsoinfo
B. cpinfo
C. uag-diag
D. CST
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 69
ALL of the following options are provided by the SecurePlatform sysconfig utility, EXCEPT:
A. Export setup
B. Time & Date
C. DHCP Server configuration
D. GUI Clients

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 70
Which of the following options is available with the SecurePlatform cpconfig utility?
A. Time & Date
B. GUI Clients
C. DHCP Server configuration
D. Export Setup

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 71
Which command would provide the most comprehensive diagnostic information to Check Point Technical Support?
A. cpstat – date.cpstat.txt
B. fw cpinfo
C. cpinfo -o date.cpinfo.txt
D. diag

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 72
Which of the following statements accurately describes the command snapshot?
A. snapshot creates a Security Management Server full system-level backup on any OS.
B. snapshot stores only the system-configuration settings on the Gateway.
C. A Gateway snapshot includes configuration settings and Check Point product information from the remote Security Management Server.
D. snapshot creates a full OS-level backup, including network-interface data, Check Point product information, and configuration settings during an upgrade of a SecurePlatform Security Gateway.

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 73
How do you recover communications between your Security Management Server and Security Gateway if you lock yourself out through a rule or policy mis-configuration?
A. fw delete [email protected]
B. fw unload policy
C. fwm unloadlocal
D. fw unloadlocal

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 74
How can you check whether IP forwarding is enabled on an IP Security Appliance?
A. clish -c show routing active enable
B. ipsofwd list
C. cat /proc/sys/net/ipv4/ip_forward
D. echo 1 > /proc/sys/net/ipv4/ip_forward

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 75
Which command allows you to view the contents of an R76 table?
A. fw tab -s <tablename>
B. fw tab -t <tablename>
C. fw tab -x <tablename>
D. fw tab -a <tablename>

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 76
Which of the following tools is used to generate a Security Gateway R76 configuration report?
A. infoCP
B. cpinfo
C. infoview
D. fw cpinfo

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 77
Which of the following is a CLI command for Security Gateway R76?
A. fw merge
B. fw tab -u
C. fw shutdown
D. fwm policy_print <policyname>

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 78
You are the Security Administrator for MegaCorp. A Check Point firewall is installed and in use on a platform using GAiA. You have trouble configuring the speed and duplex settings of your Ethernet interfaces. Which of the following commands can be used in Expert Mode to configure the speed and duplex settings of an Ethernet interface and will survive a reboot? Give the BEST answer.
A. eth_set
B. mii_tool
C. ifconfig -a
D. ethtool
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 79
Which command enables IP forwarding on IPSO?
A. echo 1 > /proc/sys/net/ipv4/ip_forward
B. ipsofwd on admin
C. echo 0 > /proc/sys/net/ipv4/ip_forward
D. clish -c set routing active enable

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 80
When you change an implicit rule’s order from Last to First in Global Properties, how do you make the change take effect?
A. Run fw fetch from the Security Gateway.
B. Select Install Database from the Policy menu.
C. Reinstall the Security Policy.
D. Select Save from the File menu.

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 81

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QUESTION 30
Which utility allows you to configure the DHCP service on SecurePlatform from the command line?
A. sysconfig
B. dhcp_cfg
C. cpconfig
D. ifconfig

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 31
Which utility is necessary for reestablishing SIC?
A. fwm sic_reset
B. cpconfig
C. cplic
D. sysconfig

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 32
The third-shift Administrator was updating Security Management Server access settings in Global Properties. He managed to lock all administrators out of their accounts. How should you unlock these accounts?
A. Reinstall the Security Management Server and restore using upgrade_import.
B. Delete the file admin.lock in the Security Management Server directory $FWDIR/tmp/.
C. Type fwm lock_admin -ua from the Security Management Server command line.
D. Login to SmartDashboard as the special cpconfig_admin user account; right-click on each administrator object and select unlock.

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 33
The third shift administrator was updating security management server access setting in global properties. He managed to lock the entire Administrator out of their accounts. How should you unlock these accounts?
A. Logging to smart dash board as special cpconfig_admin account. Right click on each administrator object and select Unlock.
B. Type fwm lock_admin ua from the command line of the security management server
C. Reinstall the security management Server and restore using upgrade _imort
D. Delete the file admin .lock in the sfwdir/ tmp/directory of the security managem,ent server.

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 34
You are the Security Administrator in a large company called ABC. A Check Point Firewall is installed and in use on SecurePlatform. You are concerned that the system might not be retaining your entries for the interfaces and routing configuration. You would like to verify your entries in the corresponding file(s) on SecurePlatform. Where can you view them? Give the BEST answer.
A. /etc/conf/route.C
B. /etc/sysconfig/netconf.C
C. /etc/sysconfig/network-scripts/ifcfg-ethx
D. /etc/sysconfig/network

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 35
When using SecurePlatform, it might be necessary to temporarily change the MAC address of the interface eth 0 to 00:0C:29:12:34:56. After restarting the network the old MAC address should be active. How do you configure this change?
A. Open the WebUI, select Network > Connections > eth0. Place the new MAC address in the field Physical Address, and press Apply to save the settings.
B. As expert user, issue these commands: # IP link set eth0 down # IP link set eth0 addr 00:0C:29:12:34:56 # IP link set eth0 up
C. As expert user, issue the command: # IP link set eth0 addr 00:0C:29:12:34:56
D. Edit the file /etc/sysconfig/netconf.c and put the new MAC address in the field (conf : (conns 🙁 conn :hwaddr (“00:0C:29:12:34:56”)
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 36
Where is the IPSO Boot Manager physically located on an IP Appliance?
A. In the / nvram directory
B. On an external jump drive
C. On the platform’s BIOS
D. On built-in compact Flash memory
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 37
ALL of the following options are provided by the SecurePlatform sysconfig utility, EXCEPT:
A. DHCP Server configuration
B. GUI Clients
C. Time & Date
D. Export setup
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 38
Which of the following options is available with the SecurePlatform cpconfig utility?
A. GUI Clients
B. Time & Date
C. Export setup
D. DHCP Server configuration
Correct Answer: A QUESTION 39
Which command would provide the most comprehensive diagnostic information to Check Point Technical Support?
A. diag
B. cpinfo -o date.cpinfo.txt
C. netstat > date.netstat.txt
D. cpstat > date.cpatat.txt

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 40
How do you recover communications between your Security Management Server and Security Gateway if you lock yourself out via a rule or policy mis-configuration?
A. fw delete [email protected]
B. cpstop
C. fw unloadlocal
D. fw unload policy

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 41
How can you check whether IP forwarding is enabled on an IP Security Appliance?
A. clish c show routing active enable
B. echo 1 > /proc/sys/net/ipv4/ip_forwarding
C. ipsofwd list
D. cat/proc/sys/net/ipv4/ip_forward

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 42
For normal packet transmission of an accepted communication to a host protected by a Security Gateway, how many lines per packet are recorded on a packet analyzer like Wireshark using fw monitor?
A. 2
B. 4
C. 3
D. None

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 43
How can I verify the policy version locally installed on the Firewall?
A. fw ver
B. fw ctl iflist
C. fw ver -k
D. fw stat

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 44
If you run fw monitor without any parameters, what does the output display?
A. In /var/adm/monitor. Out
B. On the console
C. In /tmp/log/monitor out
D. In / var/log/monitor. out

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 45
Another administrator accidentally installed a Security Policy on the wrong firewall. Having done this, you are both locked out of the firewall that is called myfw1. What command would you execute on your system console on myfw1 in order for you to push out a new Security Policy?
A. fw dbloadlocal
B. fw unloadlocal
C. cpstop
D. fw ctl filter

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 46
Which of the following commands will completely remove the Security Policy from being enforced on a Security Gateway?
A. fw unload
B. fw unloadlocal
C. cpstop
D. fw unload local

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 47
Which of the following commands identifies whether or not a Security Policy is installed or the Security Gateway is operating with the initial policy?
A. fw monitor
B. fw ctl pstat
C. cp stat
D. fw stat

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 48
To monitor all traffic between a network and the Internet on a SecurePlatform Gateway, what is the BEST utility to use?
A. snoop
B. cpinfo
C. infoview
D. tcpdump

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 49
You are creating an output file with the following command:
fw monitor -e “accept (src=10.20.30.40 or dst=10.20.30.40);” -o ~/output Which tool do you use to analyze this file?
A. You can analyze it with Wireshark or Ethereal.
B. You can analyze the output file with any ASCI editor.
C. The output file format is CSV, so you can use MS Excel to analyze it.
D. You cannot analyze it with any tool as the syntax should be:fw monitor -e accept ([12,b]=10.20.30.40 or [16,b]=10.20.30.40); -o ~/output.

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 50
You issue the fw monitor command with no arguments. Which of the following inspection points will be displayed?
A. Before the virtual machine, in the inbound direction
B. After the virtual machine, in the outbound direction
C. All inspection points
D. Before the virtual machine, in the outbound direction

Correct Answer: C

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QUESTION 75
“Pass Any Exam. Any Time.” – www.actualtests.com 30 Checkpoint 156-215.75 Exam Select the correct statement about Secure Internal Communications (SIC) Certificates. SIC Certificates are created:
A. And used for securing internal network communications between SmartView Tracker and an OPSEC device.
B. For the Security Management Server during the Security Management Server installation.
C. For Security Gateways during the Security Gateway installation.
D. To decrease network security by securing administrative communication among the Security Management Servers and the Security Gateway.
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 76
Select the correct statement about Secure Internal Communications (SIC) Certificates. SIC Certificates:
A. Increase network security by securing administrative communication with a two-factor challenge response authentication.
B. Uniquely identify machines installed with Check Point software only. They have the same function as RSA Authentication Certificates.
C. Are for Security Gateways created during the Security Management Server installation.
D. Can be used for securing internal network communications between the Security Gateway and an OPSEC device.

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 77
Which of the following statements regarding SecureXL and CoreXL is TRUE?
A. SecureXL is an application for accelerating connections.
B. CoreXL enables multi-core processing for program interfaces.
C. SecureXL is only available in R75.
D. CoreXL is included in SecureXL.

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 78
Beginning with R75, Software Blades were introduced. One of the Software Blades is the IPS Software Blade as a replacement for SmartDefense. When buying or upgrading to a bundle, some blades are included, e.g. FW, VPN, IPS in SG103. Which statement is NOT true?
A. The license price includes IPS Updates for the first year.
B. The IPS Software Blade can be used for an unlimited time.
C. There is no need to renew the service contract after one year.
D. After one year, it is mandatory to renew the service contract for the IPS Software Blade because it has been bundled with the license when purchased.

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 79
You need to plan the company’s new security system. The company needs a very high level of security and also high performance and high throughput for their applications. You need to turn on most of the integrated IPS checks while maintaining high throughput. What would be the BEST solution for this scenario?
A. You need to buy a strong multi-core machine and run R70 or later on SecurePlatform with CoreXL technology enabled.
B. Bad luck, both together can not be achieved.
C. The IPS does not run when CoreXL is enabled.
D. The IPS system does not affect the firewall performance and CoreXL is not needed in this scenario.

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 80
John is the Security Administrator in his company. He needs to maintain the highest level of security on the firewalls he manages. He is using Check Point R75. Does he need the IPS Software Blade for achieving this goal?
“Pass Any Exam. Any Time.” – www.actualtests.com 32 Checkpoint 156-215.75 Exam
A. No, all IPS protections are active, but can’t be uploaded without the license like SmartDefense.
B. Yes, otherwise no protections can be enabled.
C. Yes, otherwise the firewall will pass all traffic unfiltered and unchecked.
D. No, the Gateway will always be protected and the IPS checks can’t be managed without a license.

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 81
Which command allows you to view the contents of an R75 table?
A. fw tab -x <tablename>
B. fw tab -a <tablename>
C. fw tab -s <tablename>
D. fw tab -t <tablename>

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 82
Your R75 enterprise Security Management Server is running abnormally on Windows 2003 Server. You decide to try reinstalling the Security Management Server, but you want to try keeping the critical Security Management Server configuration settings intact (i.e., all Security Policies, databases, SIC, licensing etc.) What is the BEST method to reinstall the Server and keep its critical configuration?
A. 1) Run the latest upgrade_export utility to export the configuration 2) Leave the exported – tgz file in %FWDIR\bin. 3) Install the primary security Management Server on top of the current installation 4) Run upgrade_import to Import the configuration.
B. 1) Insert the R75 CD-ROM. and select the option to export the configuration into a . tgz file 2) Skip any upgrade verification warnings since you are not upgrading. 3) Transfer the. tgz file to another networked machine. 4) Download and run the cpclean utility and reboot. 5) Use the R75 CD_ROM to select the upgrade__import option to import the c
C. 1) Download the latest upgrade_export utility and run it from a \ temp directory to export the Configuration. 2) Perform any requested upgrade verification suggested steps. “Pass Any Exam. Any Time.” – www.actualtests.com 33 Checkpoint 156-215.75 Exam 3) Uninstall all R75 packages via Add/Remove Programs and reboot 4) Use smartUpdate to reinstall the Security Management server and reboot 5) Transfer the .tgz file back to the local \ temp. 6) Run upgrade_import to import the configuration.
D. 1) Download the latest upgrade_export utility and run it from a \ temp directory to export the Configuration. 2) Transferee .tgz file to another network machine 3) Uninstall all R75 packages via Add/Remove Programs and reboot 4) Install again using the R75 CD ROM as a primary security management server 5) Reboot and than transfer the .tgz file back to the local\ tem p 6) Run upgcade_import to import the configuration.

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 83
Your primary Security Management Server runs on SecurePlatform. What is the easiest way to back up your Security Gateway R75 configuration, including routing and network configuration files?
A. Using the upgrade_export command.
B. Copying the $FWDIR/conf and $FWDIR/lib directory to another location.
C. Run the pre_upgrade_verifier and save the .tgz file to the /temp directory.
D. Using the native SecurePlatform backup utility from command line or in the Web based user interface.
Correct Answer: D QUESTION 84
You need to back up the routing, interface, and DNS configuration information from your R75 SecurePlatform Security Gateway. Which backup-and-restore solution do you use?
A. SecurePlatform backup utilities
B. upgrade_export and upgrade_import commands
C. Database Revision Control
D. Manual copies of the $FWDIR/conf directory

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 85
Your R75 primary Security Management Server is installed on SecurePlatform. You plan to schedule the Security Management Server to run fw logswitch automatically every 48 hours.
How do you create this schedule?
A. Create a time object, and add 48 hours as the interval. Open the primary Security Management Server object’s Logs and Masters window, enable Schedule log switch, and select the Time object.
B. Create a time object, and add 48 hours as the interval. Open the Security Gateway object’s Logs and Masters window, enable Schedule log switch, and select the Time object.
C. Create a time object, and add 48 hours as the interval. Select that time object’s Global Properties > Logs and Masters window, to schedule a logswitch.
D. On a SecurePlatform Security Management Server, this can only be accomplished by configuring the fw logswitch command via the cron utility.

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 86
Which of the following methods will provide the most complete backup of an R75 configuration?
A. Policy Package Management
B. Copying the $PWDIR\conf and $CPDIR\conf directories to another server
C. upgrade_export command
D. Database Revision Control

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 87
Which of the following commands can provide the most complete restoration of an R75 configuration?
“Pass Any Exam. Any Time.” – www.actualtests.com 35 Checkpoint 156-215.75 Exam
A. Cpconfig
B. Upgrade_import
C. fwm dbimport -p
D. cpinfo -recover

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 88
When restoring R75 using the command upgrade > Port. Which of the following items is NOT restored?
A. Licenses
B. Global properties
C. SIC Certificates
D. Route tables

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 89
Your organization’s disaster recovery plan needs an update to the backup and restore section to reap the benefits of the new distributed R75 installation. Your plan must meet the following required and desired objectives:
Required Objective: The Security Policy repository must be backed up no less frequently than every 24
hours.
Desired Objective: The R75 components that enforce the Security Polices should be blocked up at least
once a week.

Desired Objective: Back up R75 logs at least once a week
Your disaster recovery plan is as follows:
Use the cron utility to run the upgrade_ export command each night on the Security Management Servers.
Configure the organization’s routine backup software to back up the files created by the upgrade_
“Pass Any Exam. Any Time.” – www.actualtests.com 36

Checkpoint 156-215.75 Exam
export command.
Configure the SecurePlatform backup utility to back up the Security Gateways every Saturday night
Use the cron utility to run the upgrade export: command each Saturday niqht on the log servers
Configure an automatic, nightly loqswitch
Configure the organization’s routine backup software to back up the switched logs every night
Upon evaluation, your plan:

A. Meets the required objective but does not meet either desired objective.
B. Does not meet the required objective.
C. Meets the required objective and only one desired objective.
D. Meets the required objective and both desired objectives.

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 90
Your company is running Security Management Server R75 on SecurePlatform, which has been migrated through each version starting from Check Point 4.1. How do you add a new administrator account?
A. Using SmartDashboard, under Users, select Add New Administrator
B. Using the Web console on SecurePlatform under Product configuration, select Administrators
C. Using SmartDashboard or cpconf ig
D. Using cpconftg on the Security Management Server, choose Administrators

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 91
Which of the following tools is used to generate a Security Gateway R75 configuration report?
A. ethereal
B. cpinfo “Pass Any Exam. Any Time.” – www.actualtests.com 37 Checkpoint 156-215.75 Exam
C. licview
D. infoview

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 92
Which of the following is a CLI command for Security Gateway R75?
A. fwm policy_print <policyname>
B. fw shutdown
C. fw merge
D. fw tab -u

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 93
What information is provided from the options in this screenshot?

(i)Whether a SIC certificate was generated for the Gateway
(ii)Whether the operating system is SecurePlatform or SecurePlatform Pro
“Pass Any Exam. Any Time.” – www.actualtests.com 38 Checkpoint 156-215.75 Exam (iii)Whether this is a standalone or distributed installation
A. (i), (ii) and (iii)
B. (i) and (iii)
C. (i) and (ii)
D. (ii) and (iii)

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 94
Peter is your new Security Administrator. On his first working day, he is very nervous and sets the wrong password three times. His account is locked. What can be done to unlock Peter’s account? Give the BEST answer.
A. You can unlock Peter’s account by using the command fwm unlock_admin -u Peter on the Security Gateway.
B. It is not possible to unlock Peter’s account. You have to install the firewall once again or abstain from Peter’s help.
C. You can unlock Peter’s account by using the command fwm lock_admin -u Peter on the Security Management Server.
D. You can unlock Peter’s account by using the command fwm unlock_admin -u Peter on the Security Management Server.

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 95
Which CLI command verifies the number of cores on your firewall machine?
A. fw ctl pstat
B. fw ctl core stat
C. fw ctl multik stat
D. cpstat fw -f core

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 96
John currently administers a network using NGX R65.4 on the Security Management Server and NGX R65.2.100 (the VOIP release with the VOIP plug-ins enabled). He wants to upgrade to R75 to get the benefits of Check Point’s Software Blades. What would be the best way of doing this?
A. This can not be done yet as R75 can not manage NGX R65 Gateways due to SmartDefense and IPS mismatch problems.
B. Run upgrade_export on R65 management, then install R75 on this machine and run upgrade_import and re-license the systems to use software blades.
C. Just insert the R75 CD-ROM and run the in-place upgrade.
D. This is not supported today as currently the VOIP Software Blade and VOIP plug-in is not available in R75.

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 97
John currently administers a network using single CPU single core servers for the Security Gateways and is running R75. His company is now going to implement VOIP and needs more performance on the Gateways. He is now adding more memory to the systems and also upgrades the CPU to a modern quad core CPU in the server. He wants to use CoreXL technology to benefit from the new performance benchmarks of this technology. How can he achieve this?
A. Nothing needs to be done. SecurePlatform recognized the change during reboot and adjusted all the settings automatically.
B. He just needs to go to cpconfig on the CLI and enable CoreXL. Only a restart of the firewall is required to benefit from CoreXL technology.
C. He needs to reinstall the Gateways because during the initial installation, it was a single-core CPU but the wrong Linux kernel was installed. There is no other upgrade path available.
D. He just needs to go to cpconfig on the CLI and enable CoreXL. After the required reboot he will benefit from the new technology.

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 98
“Pass Any Exam. Any Time.” – www.actualtests.com 40 Checkpoint 156-215.75 Exam You are running a R75 Security Gateway on SecurePlatform. In case of a hardware failure, you have a server with the exact same hardware and firewall version installed. What backup method could be used to quickly put the secondary firewall into production?
A. upgrade_export
B. manual backup
C. snapshot
D. backup

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 99
Before upgrading SecurePlatform, you should create a backup. To save time, many administrators use the command backup. This creates a backup of the Check Point configuration as well as the system configuration.
An administrator has installed the latest HFA on the system for fixing traffic problem after creating a backup file. There is a mistake in the very complex static routing configuration. The Check Point configuration has not been changed. Can the administrator use a restore to fix the errors in static routing?
A. The restore can be done easily by the command restore and selecting the appropriate backup file.
B. A backup cannot be restored, because the binary files are missing.
C. The restore is not possible because the backup file does not have the same build number (version).
D. The restore is done by selecting Snapshot Management from the boot menu of SecurePlatform.

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 100
Which operating systems are supported by a Check Point Security Gateway on an open server?
A. Check Point SecurePlatform and Microsoft Windows
B. Sun Solaris, Red Hat Enterprise Linux, Check Point SecurePlatform, IPSO, Microsoft Windows
C. Check Point SecurePlatform, IPSO, Sun Solaris, Microsoft Windows
D. Microsoft Windows, Red Hat Enterprise Linux, Sun Solaris, IPSO “Pass Any Exam. Any Time.” -www.actualtests.com 41 Checkpoint 156-215.75 Exam

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 101
You intend to upgrade a Check Point Gateway from R65 to R75. Prior to upgrading, you want to backup the Gateway should there be any problems with the upgrade. Which of the following allows for the Gateway configuration to be completely backed up into a manageable size in the least amount of time?
A. Backup
B. Snapshot
C. Upgrade_export
D. Database_revision

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 102
Your network is experiencing connectivity problems and you want to verify if routing problems are present. You need to disable the firewall process but still allow routing to pass through the Gateway running on an IP Appliance running IPSO. What command do you need to run after stopping the firewall service?
A. fw fwd routing
B. ipsofwd on admin
C. fw load routed
D. ipsofwd slowpath
Correct Answer: B QUESTION 103
Where can you find the Check Point’s SNMP MIB file?
“Pass Any Exam. Any Time.” – www.actualtests.com 42 Checkpoint 156-215.75 Exam
A. $FWDIR/conf/snmp.mib
B. It is obtained only by request from the TAC.
C. $CPDIR/lib/snmp/chkpt.mib
D. There is no specific MIB file for Check Point products.

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 104
You want to generate a cpinfo file via CLI on a system running SecurePlatform. This will take about 40 minutes since the log files are also needed. What action do you need to take regarding timeout?
A. Log in as the default user expert and start cpinfo.
B. No action is needed because cpshell has a timeout of one hour by default.
C. Log in as Administrator, set the timeout to one hour with the command idle 60 and start cpinfo.
D. Log in as admin, switch to expert mode, set the timeout to one hour with the command, idle 60, then start cpinto.

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 105
Many companies have defined more than one administrator. To increase security, only one administrator should be able to install a Rule Base on a specific Firewall. How do you configure this?
A. Define a permission profile in SmartDashboard with read/write privileges, but restrict it to all other firewalls by placing them in the Policy Targets field. Then, an administrator with this permission profile cannot install a policy on any Firewall not listed here.
B. In the General Properties of the object representing the specific Firewall, go to the Software Blades product list and select Firewall. Right-click in the menu, select Administrator to Install to define only this administrator.
C. Put the one administrator in an Administrator group and configure this group in the specific Firewall object in Advanced / Permission to Install.
D. Right-click on the object representing the specific administrator, and select that Firewall in Policy Targets.
Correct Answer: C

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What function does the Audit mode of SmartView Tracker perform?
A. It tracks detailed information about packets traversing the Enforcement Modules.
B. It maintains a detailed log of problems with VPN-1/FireWall-1 services on the SmartCenter Server.
C. It is used to maintain a record of the status of each Enforcement Module and SmartCenter server.
D. It maintains a detailed record of status of each Enforcement Module and SmartCenter Server.
E. It tracks changes and Security Policy installations, per Security Administrator, performed in SmartDashboard.
Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 12
In the SmartView Tracker, what is the difference between the FireWall-1 and VPN-1 queries? Choose three.
A. A VPN-1 query only displays encrypted and decrypted traffic.
B. A FireWall-1 query displays all traffic matched by rules, which have logging activated.
C. A FireWall-1 query displays all traffic matched by all rules.
D. A FireWall-1 query also displays encryption and decryption information.
E. Implied rules, when logged, are viewed using the VPN-1 query.
Correct Answer: ABD
QUESTION 13
Network topology exhibit

You want hide all localnet and DMZ hosts behind the Enforcemenet Module, except for the HTTP Server
(192.9.200.9). The HTTP Server will be providing public services, and must be accessible from the
Internet.
Select the two BEST Network Address Translation (NAT) solutions for this scenario,

A. To hide Local Network addresses, set the address translation for 192.9.0.0
B. To hide Local Network addresses, set the address translation for 192.9.200.0
C. Use automatic NAT rule creation to hide both DMZ and Local Network.
D. To hide Local Network addresses, set the address translation for privatenet.
E. Use automatic NAT rule creation, to statically translate the HTTP Server address.
Correct Answer: CE
QUESTION 14
The SmartDefense Storm Center Module agent receives the Dshield.org Block List, and:
A. Populates CPDShield with blocked address ranges, every three hours.
B. Generates logs from rules tracking internal traffic.
C. Submits the number of authentication failures, and drops, rejects, and accepts.
D. Generates regular and compact log digest.
E. Populates the firewall daemon with log trails.
Correct Answer: A QUESTION 15

What are the advantages of central licensing? Choose three.
A. Only the IP address of a SmartCenter Server is needed for all licences.
B. A central licence can be removed from one Enforcement Module, and installe don another Enforcement Module.
C. Only the IP address of an Enforcement Module is needed for all licences.
D. A central license remains valid, when you change the IP address of an Enforcemente Module.
E. A central license can be converted into a local license.
Correct Answer: ABD
QUESTION 16
A security Administrator wants to review the number of packets accepted by each of the Enforcement modules. Which of the following viewers is the BEST source for viewing this information?
A. SmartDashboard
B. SmartUpdate
C. SmartMap
D. SmartView Status
E. SmartView Tracker
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 17
Hidden (or masked) rules are used to:
A. Hide rules from administrators with lower privileges.
B. View only a few rules, without distraction of others.
C. Temporarily disable rules, without having to reinstall the Security Policy.
D. Temporarily convert specifically defined rules to implied rules.
E. Delete rules, without having to reinstall the Security Policy.
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 18
Which of the following characteristics BEST describes the behaviour of Check Point NG with Application Intelligence?
A. Traffic not expressly permitted is prohibited.
B. All traffic is expressly permitted by explicit rules.
C. Secure connections are authorized by default. Unsecured connectdions are not.
D. Traffic is filtered using controlled ports.
E. TELNET, HTTP; and SMTP are allowed by default.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 19
SmartUpdate CANNOT be used to:
A. Track installed versions of Check Point and OPSEC products.
B. Manage licenses centrally.
C. Update installed Check Point and OPSEC software remotely, from a centralized location.
D. Uninstall Check Point and OPSEC software remotely, from a centralized location.
E. Remotely install NG with Application Intelligence for the first time, on a new machine.
Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 20
Which of the following statements about Client Authentication is FALSE?
A. In contrast to User Authentication that allows access per user. Client Authentication allows access per IP address.
B. Client Authentication is more secure than User Authentication, because it allows multiple users and connections from an authorized IP address or host.
C. Client Authentication enables Security Administrators to grant access privileges to a specific IP address, after successful authentication.
D. Authentication is by user name and password, but it is the host machine (client) that is granted access.
E. Client Authentication is not restricted to a limited set of protocols.
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 21
Why is Application Layer particularly vulnerable to attacks? Choose three
A. Malicious Java, ActiveX, and VB Scripts can exploit host system simply by browsing.
B. The application Layer performs access-control and legitimate-use checks.
C. Defending against attacks at the Application Layer is more difficult, than at lower layers of the OSI model.
D. The Application Layer does not perform unauthorized operations.
E. The application Layer supports many protocols.
Correct Answer: ACE
QUESTION 22
You have created a rule that requires users to be authenticated, when connecting to the Internet using HTTP. Which is the BEST authentication method for users who must use specific computers for Internet access?
A. Client
B. Session
C. User
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 23
What function does the Active mode of SmartView Tracker perform?
A. It displays the active Security Policy.
B. It displays active Security Administrators currently logged into a SmartCenter Server.
C. It displays current active connections traversing Enforcement Modules.
D. It displays the current log file, as it is stored on a SmartCenter Server.
E. It displays only current connections between VPN-1/FireWall-1 modules.
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 24
You are importing product data from modules, during a VPN-1/Firwall-1 Enforcement Module upgrade. Which of the following statements are true? Choose two.
A. Upgrading a single Enforcement Module is recommended by Check Point, since there is no chance of mismatch between installed product versions.
B. SmartUpdate queries license information, from the SmartConsole runging locally on the Enforcement Module.
C. SmartUpdate queries the SmartCenter Server and Enforcement Module for product information.
D. If SmartDashboard and all SmartConsoles must be open during input, otherwise the product-data retrieval process will fail
Correct Answer: AC
QUESTION 25
Which if the following components functions as the Internal Certificate Authority for all modules in the VPN-1/FireWall-1 configuration?
A. Enforcement Module
B. INSPECT Engine
C. SmartCenter Server
D. SmartConsole
E. Policy Server

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 26
Which of the following is NOT a security benefit of Check Point’s Secure Internal Communications (SIC)?
A. Generates VPN certificates for IKE clients.
B. Allows the Security Administrator to confirm that the Security Policy on an Enforcement Module came from an authorized Management Server.
C. Confirms that a SmartConsole is authorized to connect a SmartCenter Server
D. Uses SSL for data encryption.
E. Maintains data privacy and integrity.

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 27
You are administering one SmartCenter Server that manages three Enforcement Modules. One of the Enforcement Modules does not appear as a target in the Install Policy screen, when you attempt to install the Security Policy. What is causing this to happen?
A. The license for the Enforcement Module has expired.
B. The Enforcement Module requires a reboot.
C. The object representing the Enforcement Module was created as a Node->Gateway.
D. The Enforcement Module was not listed in the Install On column of its rule.
E. No Enforcement Module Master filer was created, designating the SmartCenter Server

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 28
You are the Security Administrator with one SmartCenter Server managing one Enforcement Moduel. SmartView Status displayes a computer icon with an “I” in the Status column. What does this mean?
A. You have entered the wrong password at SmartView Status login.
B. Secure Internal Communications (SIC) has not been established between the SmartCenter Server and the Enforcement Module.
C. The SmartCenter Server cannot contact a gateway.
D. The VPN-1/Firewall-1 Enforcement Module has been compromised and is no longer controlled by this SmartCenter Sever.
E. The Enforcement Module is installed and responding to status checks, but the status is problematic.
Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 29
Check Point’s NG with Application Intelligence protects against Network and Transport layer attacks by: (Choose two)
A. Preventing protocol-anomaly detection-
B. Allowing IP fragmentation-
C. Preventing validation of compliance to standards.
D. Preventing non-TCP denial-of-service attacks, and port scanning.
E. Preventing malicious manipulation of Network Layer protocols.

Correct Answer: DE
QUESTION 30
Which of the following locations is Static NAT processed by the Enforcement Module on packets from an external source to an internal statically translated host? Static NAT occurs.
A. After the inbound kernel, and before routing.
B. After the outbound kernel, and before routing.
C. After the inbound kernel, and aftter routing.
D. Before the inbound kernel, and after routing.
E. Before the outbound kernel, and before routing.

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 31
Which of the following does a Check Point security gateway access, analyze, and use? Choose three.
A. Communications information
B. Communication-derivec state
C. Packet sniffing
D. Information mapping
E. Application-derived state

Correct Answer: ABE
QUESTION 32
Which NG with Application Intelligence feature allows a Security Administrator to granularly control acceptable FTP commands?
A. FTP Security Server object settings
B. Check Point Gateway object, Security Server settings
C. SmartDefense, FTP Security Server settings
D. Rule Base Service field
E. Global Properties, Security Server settings.

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 33
You are Security Administrator preparing to deploy a new hot-fix to ten Enforcement Modules at five geographically separated locations. What is the BEST method to implement this hot-fix?
A. Use SmartView installer to deploy the hot-fix to each Enforcement Module.
B. Send a CDROM with the hot-fix to each location, and have local personnel install it.
C. Send a Certified Security Engineer to each site to perform the update.
D. Use SmartInstaller to install the packages to each of the Enforcement Models remotely.
E. Use SmartUpdate to install the packages to each of the Enforcement Models remotely.

Correct Answer: E QUESTION 34
Implicit rules do NOT allow what types of VPN-1/FireWall-1 Control Connections by default?
A. Outgoing traffic, originating from the gateway
B. RIP for routing configuration
C. IKE and RDP-traffic, for communication and encryption
D. VPN-1/Firewall-1 specific traffic, such as logging, management, and key exchange
E. RADIOUS; CVP, UFP, and LDAP

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 35
In Secure Internal Communicators (SIC), the SmartCenter Server and its components are identified by a (n):
A. SIC entry in the host file
B. Random seed
C. Port number
D. Distinguished Name
E. IP address

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 36
Which of the following statements BEST describes Dynamic Network Address Translation (Hide NAT)?
A. Allow you to hide an entire network behind one IP address.
B. Translates private external IP addresses to public IP addresses.
C. Allows you to hide an entire network behind public IP addresses.
D. Translates public internal IP addresses to private IP addresses.
E. Allow you to hide an entire network behind random IP addresses.

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 37
What type of TCP attack is a bandwidth attack, where a client fools a server into sending large amount of data, using small packets?
A. SMURF
B. SYN-Flood
C. Host System Hogging
D. Small PMTU
E. LAND
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 38
How is the Block Intruder request used?
A. It is used in place of the HTTP Security Server.
B. SmartDefense automatically uses this capability.
C. It is used in the Log mode of SmartView Tracker to kill active connections.
D. It is activated in SmartDashboard through the Security Policy.
E. It blocks access from a Source, or to a Destination, for a specified amount of time, or indefinitely.
Correct Answer: E QUESTION 39
A conflict between anti-spoofing and Network Address Translation (NAT) occurs when:
A. The Translate destination on the client-side option is not enabled when using Static NAT:
B. NAT is performed on the client side.
C. Manual NAT rules are used.
D. The Translate destination on the client-side option is enabled.
E. The Translate destination on the server-side option is enabled.

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 40
One of the most important tasks Security Adminstrators perform is log maintenance. By default, when an administrator clicks File > Switch Active file from SmartView Tracker, the SmartCenter server:
A. Purges the current log file, and prompts the Security Administrator for the mode of the new log.
B. Opens a new window with a previously saved log for viewing.
C. Saves the current log file, names the save file by date and time and starts a new log.
D. Prompts the Security Administrator for the name of the current log, saves it, and then prompts the Security Administrator for the mode of the new log.
E. Purges the current log file, and starts a new log.

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 41
A VPN-1/FireWall-1 SmartDashboard is used to perform which of the following tasks? Choose two.
A. Allows the Security Administrator to configure Network Address Translation.
B. Stores VPN-1/Firewall-1 logs
C. Compiles the Rule Base into an enforceable Security Policy.
D. Stores the User Database.
E. It is used to crate and define a Security Policy.

Correct Answer: AE
QUESTION 42
Assuming the default settings in the Global Properties have not changed, which of the following types of traffic will be allowed through a firewall with the Rule Base displayed in the exhibit?

A. VPN-1/Firewall-1 Control Connections.
B. HTTP from anywhere to Web Server.
C. HTTP from network out.
D. FTP from anywhere to Web Server.
E. RIP traffic to the gateway.

Correct Answer: AB
QUESTION 43
In SmartView Status, what does a status of Untrusted tell you?
A. The Enforcement Module is offline.
B. The Security Administrator has entered the wrong password at SmartView Status login.
C. Secure Internal Communications (SIC) has not been established between the SmartCenter Server and the Enforcement Module
D. The SmartCenter Server cannot contact a gateway
E. An Enforcement Module is installed and responding to status checks, but the status is problematic.

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 44
For which of the following objectd types can Network Address Translation be configured?
A. Domains, host nodes, network.
B. Domains, networks, users
C. Host nodes, networks, OSE devices
D. Host nodes, networks, address ranges
E. Networks, OSE Devices logical servers.

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 45
Howa CK Storm Center Block Lists activated? Choose the correction order.
1.
Security Adminstrators define a CPDShield object and place it in the Rule Base appropriately.

2.
The Storm Center Module agent on the Enforcement Module retrieves the Block list, and replaces the CPDSHield object with a list of blocked IP addresses.

3.
The Storm Center Module agent periodically checks for updates to the Block list.
A. 3, 2, 1
B. 1, 2, 3
C. 2, 3, 1
D. 3, 1, 2
E. 2, 1, 3
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 46
Network topology exhibit In the network displayed in the exhibit, the public servers accept and initiate connections from the Internet. The public servers must:

A. Be moved to the other side of the Enforcement Module, and give public addresses.
B. Use Reverse Network Address Translation.
C. Use Static Network Address Translation.
D. Use Dynamic Network Address Translation
E. Network Address Translation is not required.

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 47
What Blocking Scope options are available when using Block Intruder? Choose three.
A. Block access from this Source.
B. Block source and destination
C. Block access to this Destination.
D. Block only this connection
E. Block all traffic
Correct Answer: ACD
QUESTION 48
TO be MOST effective, where should Anti-Spoofing be configured?
A. Only on interfaces facing internal networks.
B. Only on external and DMZ interfaces.
C. Only on DMZ interfaces
D. Only on external interfaces.
E. On all interfaces.
Correct Answer: E QUESTION 49
Choose the two responses that BEST describe a VPN-1/Firewall-1 Rule Base. A Rule Base is:
A. A collection of corporate guidelines used to structure the network Security Policies for users operating behind the firewall.
B. A collection of system settings that make up implicit rules defining network security.
C. The process by which secure communications are established between different VPN-1/Firewall-1 Modules, operating within an enterprise security environment.
D. A repository of DLL files, each provides a specific security function.
E. A set of explicitly and implicitly defined rules used to define network security.

Correct Answer: AE
QUESTION 50
When defining objects, why should you NOT change the name or IP address of the system-created SmartCenter Server objects? Choose two.
A. Changes the certificate of the system-created object
B. Causes a fault-tolerance error on the VPN-1/Firewall-1 Enforcement Module
C. Interferes with Security Policy Installation
D. Does not change the object name in the Rule Base.
E. Negatively affects the Internal Certificate Authority.

Correct Answer: AE
QUESTION 51
You are the Security Administrator with one SmartCenter Server managing one Enforcement Module.
SmartView Status displays a computer icon with an “?” in the Status column.
What does this mean?

A. The VPN-1/FireWall-1 Enforcement Module has been compromised and is no longer controlled by this SmartCenter Server.
B. Secure Internal Communications (SIC) has not been established between the SmartCenter Server and the Enforcement Module.
C. The Enforcement Module is installed and responding to status checks, but the status is problematic.
D. You have entered the wrong password at SmartView Status login.
E. The SmartCenter Server cannot contact the gateway.

Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 52
Which statement below BEST describes how VPN-1/FireWall-1 handles hidden rules? Hidden rules are:
A. Not included when the Security Policy is installed.
B. Removed from the existing Security Policy.
C. Enforced when the Security Policy is installed.
D. Automatically installed, when the Unhide All option is selected from the Hide Rules menu.
E. Enforced as implied rules, before the explicitly defined Rule Base.
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 53
Which of the following is NOT included in SVN Foundation?
A. Watch Dog for Critical Services
B. License Utilities
C. CPShared Daemon
D. SmartDefense
E. SNMP Daemon

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 54
Which of the following BEST describes the function of Dynamic Network Address Translation (Dynamic
NAT)?
Dynamic NAT:

A. Allows you to configure more public IP addresses than you have hosts.
B. Reduces the load on the Enforcement Module.
C. Limits the number of internal hosts that may access the Internet.
D. Reduces the number of connections to your Web server.
E. Allows you to configure for more hosts than you have public IP addresses.

Correct Answer: E

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QUESTION 41
If e-mail is subject to review by individuals other than the sender and recipient, what should be clearly stated in the organization’s e-mail policy?
A. Technologies and methods used to monitor and enforce the organization’s policies
B. Senior management and business-unit owner responsibilities and delegation options
C. Clear, legally defensible definition of what constitutes a business record
D. Consequences for violation of the organization’s acceptable-use policy
E. No expectation of privacy for e-mail communications, using the organization’s resources

Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 42
Which of the following are common failures that should be addressed in an organization’s Business Continuity Plan (BCP) ? (Choose THREE.)
A. Connectivity failures
B. Accounting failures
C. Hardware failures
D. Utility failures
E. Personal failures

Correct Answer: ACD
QUESTION 43
Which TWO of the following items should be accomplished, when interviewing candidates for a position within an organization?
A. Hire an investigation agency to run background checks.
B. Verify all dates of previous employment.
C. Question candidates, using polygraphs.
D. Contact personal and professional references.
E. Run criminal-background checks.
Correct Answer: BD QUESTION 44
A _______ _______ posture provides many levels of security possibilities, for access control.
A. Layered defensive
B. Multiple offensive
C. Flat defensive
D. Reactive defensive
E. Proactive offensive

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 45
At ABC Corporation, access to critical information resources, such as database and e-mail servers, is controlled by the information-technology (IT) department. The supervisor in the department grants access to printers where the printer is located. Managers grant and revoke rights to files within their departments’ directories on the file server, but the IT department controls who has access to the directories. Which type of access-management system is in use at ABC Corporation?
A. Centralized access management
B. Role-based access management
C. Hybrid access management
D. Decentralized access management
E. Privileged access management

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 46
Embedding symbols in images or common items, such as pictures or quilts, is an example of __________.
A. Espionage
B. Transposition cipher
C. Key exchange
D. Arithmancy
E. Steganography
Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 47
Why should each system user and administrator have individual accounts? (Choose TWO.)
A. Using generic user names and passwords increases system security and reliability.
B. Using separate accounts for each user reduces resource consumption, particularly disk space.
C. By using individual login names and passwords, user actions can be traced.
D. If users do not have individual login names, processes can automatically run with root/administrator access.
E. A generic user name and password for users and security administrators provides anonymity, which prevents useful logging and auditing.
Correct Answer: CE
QUESTION 48
A(n) _______ occurs when intrusion-detection measures fail to recognize suspicious traffic or activity.
A. False positive
B. False negative
C. CIFS pop-up
D. Threshold
E. Alarm

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 49
What is single sign-on? An authentication method:
A. that allows users to authenticate once, and then uses tokens or other credentials to manage subsequent authentication attempts
B. that stores user credentials locally, so that users need only authenticate the first time, a local machine is used
C. requiring the use of one-time passwords, so users authenticate only once, with a given set of credentials.
D. that uses smart cards, hardware tokens, and biometrics to authenticate users; also known as three-factor authentication
E. that requires users to re-authenticate for every resource accessed

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 50
Which of the following is NOT a Business Continuity Plan (BCP) recovery strategy?
A. Delegating risk to another entity, such as an insurer
B. Manual procedures; alternative solution to technology available
C. Deferring action; action waiting until a later date
D. Reciprocal agreements with another organization
E. Doing nothing; no action taken to recover the technology

Correct Answer: A

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QUESTION 55
____________________ educate(s) security administrators and end users about organizations’ security policies.
A. Security-awareness training
B. Information Security (INFOSEC) briefings
C. Acceptable-use policies
D. Continuing education
E. Nondisclosure agreements

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 56
Operating-system fingerprinting uses all of the following, EXCEPT ________, to identify a target operating system.
A. Sequence Verifier
B. Initial sequence number
C. Address spoofing
D. Time to Live
E. IP ID field

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 57
Organizations _______ risk, when they convince another entity to assume the risk for them.
A. Elevate
B. Assume
C. Deny
D. Transfer
E. Mitigate

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 58
A(n) _______________ is an unintended communication path that can be used to violate a system security policy.
A. Covert channel
B. Integrity axiom
C. Simple rule violation
D. Inferred fact
E. Aggregated data set

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 59
To protect its information assets, ABC Company purchases a safeguard that costs $60,000. The annual cost to maintain the safeguard is estimated to be $40,000. The aggregate Annualized Loss Expectancy for the risks the safeguard is expected to mitigate is $50,000.
At this rate of return, how long will it take ABC Company to recoup the cost of the safeguard?
A. ABC Company will never recoup the cost of this safeguard.
B. Less than 7 years
C. Less than 3 years
D. Less than 1 year
E. Less than 5 years

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 60
ABC Corporation’s network requires users to authenticate to cross the border firewall, and before entering restricted segments. Servers containing sensitive information require separate authentication. This is an example of which type of access-control method?
A. Single sign-on
B. Decentralized access control
C. Hybrid access control
D. Layered access control
E. Mandatory access control
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 61
The items listed below are examples of ___________________ controls.
*Smart cards *Access control lists *Authentication servers *Auditing
A. Role-based
B. Administrative
C. Technical
D. Physical
E. Mandatory

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 62
Why does the (ISC)2 access-control systems and methodology functional domain address both the confidentiality and integrity aspects of the Information Security Triad? Access-control systems and methodologies:
A. are required standards in health care and banking.
B. provide redundant systems and data backups.
C. control who is allowed to view and modify information.
D. are academic models not suitable for implementation.
E. set standards for acceptable media-storage devices.

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 63
_______ intrusion-detection systems learn the behavior of a machine or network, and create a baseline.
A. Behavioral analysis
B. Statistical anomaly
C. Network
D. Pattern matching
E. Host

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 64
Which of the following best describes the largest security challenge for Remote Offices/Branch Offices?
A. Leased-line security
B. Salami attacks
C. Unauthorized network connectivity
D. Distributed denial-of-service attacks
E. Secure access to remote organizational resources
Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 65
Which of the following is NOT a concern for enterprise physical security?
A. Network Intrusion Detection Systems
B. Social engineering
C. Dumpster diving
D. Property theft
E. Unauthorized access to a facility
Correct Answer: A QUESTION 66
Which of the following should be included in an enterprise Business Continuity Plan (BCP)? (Choose THREE.)
A. Accidental or intentional data deletion
B. Severe weather disasters
C. Employee terminations
D. Employee administrative leave
E. Minor power outages

Correct Answer: ABE
QUESTION 67
Which type of access management uses information about job duties and positions, to indicate subjects’ clearance levels?
A. Discretionary
B. Role-based
C. Nondiscretionary
D. Hybrid
E. Mandatory

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 68
When attempting to identify OPSEC indicators, information-security professionals must: (Choose THREE.)
A. Discover the information daily activities yield.
B. Meet with adversaries.
C. Perform business impact analysis surveys.
D. Scrutinize their organizations’ daily activities.
E. Analyze indicators, to determine the information an adversary can glean ?both from routine and nonroutine activities.

Correct Answer: ADE
QUESTION 69
Which of the following can be stored on a workstation? (Choose TWO.)
A. Payroll information
B. Data objects used by many employees
C. Databases
D. Interoffice memo
E. Customer correspondence
Correct Answer: DE
QUESTION 70
How is bogus information disseminated?
A. Adversaries sort through trash to find information.
B. Adversaries use anomalous traffic patterns as indicators of unusual activity. They will employ other methods, such as social engineering, to discover the cause of the noise.
C. Adversaries use movement patterns as indicators of activity.
D. Adversaries take advantage of a person’s trust and goodwill.
E. Seemingly, unimportant pieces of data may yield enough information to an adversary, for him to disseminate incorrect information and sound authoritative.

Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 71
Which type of access management allows subjects to control some access of objects for other subjects?
A. Discretionary
B. Hybrid
C. Mandatory
D. Role-based
E. Nondiscretionary

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 72
Which of the following are enterprise administrative controls? (Choose TWO.)
A. Network access control
B. Facility access control
C. Password authentication
D. Background checks
E. Employee handbooks

Correct Answer: DE
QUESTION 73
You are preparing a machine that will be used as a dedicated Web server.
Which of the following services should NOT be removed?
A. E. IRC
B. SMTP
C. FTP
D. HTTP
E. PVP

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 74
A new U.S. Federal Information Processing Standard specifies a
cryptographic algorithm. This algorithm is used by U.S. government organizations to protect sensitive,
but unclassified, information. What is the name of this Standard?

A. Triple DES
B. Blowfish
C. AES
D. CAST
E. RSA
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 75
If a firewall receives traffic not explicitly permitted by its security policy, what should the firewall do?
A. Nothing
B. Do not log and drop the traffic.
C. Log and drop the traffic.
D. Log and pass the traffic.
E. Do not log and pass the traffic.

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 76
Which of the following statements about encryption’s benefits is false? Encryption can: (Choose TWO.)
A. significantly reduce the chance information will be modified by unauthorized entities.
B. only be used to protect data in transit. Encryption provides no protection to stored data.
C. allow private information to be sent over public networks, in relative safety.
D. significantly reduce the chance information will be viewed by unauthorized entities.
E. prevent information from being destroyed by malicious entities, while in transit.

Correct Answer: BE
QUESTION 77
Which principle of secure design states that a security mechanism’s methods must be testable?
A. Separation of privilege
B. Least common mechanism
C. Complete mediation
D. Open design
E. Economy of mechanism

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 78
What type of document contains information on alternative business locations, IT resources, and personnel?
A. End-user license agreement
B. Nondisclosure agreement
C. Acceptable use policy
D. Security policy
E. Business continuity plan

Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 79
A(n) ______________________________ is a quantitative review of risks, to determine how an organization will continue to function, in the event a risk is realized.
A. Monitored risk process
B. Disaster-recovery plan
C. Business impact analysis
D. Full interruption test
E. Information security audit
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 80
Internal intrusions are loosely divided into which categories? (Choose TWO.)
A. Attempts by insiders to perform appropriate acts, on information assets to which they have been given rights or permissions.
B. Attempts by insiders to access resources, without proper access rights.
C. Attempts by insiders to access external resources, without proper access rights.
D. Attempts by insiders to perform inappropriate acts, on external information assets to which they have been given rights or permissions.
E. Attempts by insiders to perform inappropriate acts, on information assets to which they have been given rights or permissions.

Correct Answer: BE
QUESTION 81
A security administrator implements Secure Configuration Verification (SCV), because SCV: (Choose THREE.)
A. Does not enable the administrator to monitor the configuration of remote computers.
B. Can block connectivity for machines that do not comply with the organization’s security policy.
C. Enables the administrator to monitor the configuration of remote computers.
D. Prevents attackers from penetrating headquarters’ Security Gateway.
E. Confirms that a remote configuration complies with the organization’s security policy.

Correct Answer: BCE

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QUESTION 51
The -u option on fwd designates that this enforcement module allows SecuRemote connections. This option is on by default, true or false?
A. False
B. True

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 52
IP pools can be used in MEP configurations for what purpose?
A. To allow multiple connections from one client
B. To ensure that valid addresses are assigned to clients
C. To reserve connections for clients
D. To prevent asymmetric routing issues

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 53
In a high availability management module situation, in normal circumstances what is true?
A. The primary module is limited to read only access, a secondary can grant read/write access
B. The primary and secondary modules can both grant read/write access
C. The primary and secondary modules are both limited to read only access once initialized
D. The primary module can grant read/write access, a secondary is limited tot read only access

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 54
When displaying FW-1 statistics using the “fw ctl pstat” command, you may see negative values for kernel memory. What is true about this?
A. There is a memory fault
B. FW-1 is currently not active
C. This does not indicate a problem
D. Memory is being over utilized

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 55
To get the most efficient operation, you should place the rules most often matched at the bottom of the rulebase, and the rules least often matched at the top. True or false?
A. False
B. True

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 56
Which default ports are used by LDAP?
A. Port 636 for a standard connection
B. Port 389 for a standard connection
C. Port 389 for a SSL connection
D. Port 636 for a SSL connection

Correct Answer: BD
QUESTION 57
What is the default value for the timeout on cached users, applied when using an LDAP server as a user database?
A. 300 secs
B. 0 secs (ie no caching)
C. 600 secs
D. 900 secs

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 58
Which two CPMAD parameters are directly used to determine if an attack is taking place?
A. Resolution
B. Action
C. Time_interval
D. Repetitions
E. Mode

Correct Answer: CD
QUESTION 59
In a load sharing SEP configuration, what mechanism is used to ensure that each gateway sees all the traffic it needs to?
A. The gateway cluster IP address is used
B. The receiving gateway forwards the packets to the others
C. All packets are broadcast
D. Each gateways is sent the packets separately

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 60
Which is the correct format on a Windows platform to enable debug mode in fwd on an enforcement module only server?
A. fwd -d -n
B. fwd -d
C. fw d -d -n
D. fw d -d

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 61
When configuring an MEP VPN facility, you would specify a backup gateway in the VPN screen of the gateway properties window. What could be the reason for the backup gateway not being available in the drop down list?
A. The backup gateway is already a backup to another gateway
B. The backup gateway is not running VPN-1
C. The backup gateway is not defined as an internal object on this gateway
D. The backup gateway is not defined as an external object on this gateway

Correct Answer: C

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QUESTION 61
How can you prevent delay-sensitive applications, such as video and voice traffic, from being dropped due to long queues when using a Check Point QoS solution?
A. Low latency class
B. DiffServ rule
C. Guaranteed per connection
D. Weighted Fair Queuing
E. Guaranteed per VoIP rule
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 62
Certkiller is a Security Administrator preparing to implement a VPN solution for her multi-site organization
Certkiller.com. To comply with industry regulations,
Mrs. Bill VPN solution must meet the following requirements:

*
Portability: standard

*
Key management: Automatic, external PKI

*
Session keys: Changed at configured times during a connection’s lifetime

*
key length: No less than 128-bit

*
Data integrity: Secure against inversion and brute-force attacks
What is the most appropriate setting Jack should choose?
A. IKE VPNs: AES encryption for IKE Phase 1, and DES encryption for Phase 2; SHA1 ash
B. IKE VPNs: SHA1 encryption for IKE Phase 1, and MD5 encryption for Phase 2; AES hash
C. IKE VPNs: CAST encryption IKE Phase 1, and SHA1 encryption for Phase 2; DES hash
D. IKE VPNs: AES encryption for IKE Phase 1, and AES encryption for Phase 2; SHA1 hash
E. IKE VPNs: DES encryption for IKE Phase 1, and 3DES encryption for Phase 2; MD5 hash
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 63
Your current VPN-1 NG Application Intelligence (AI) R55 stand-alone VPN-1 Pro Gateway and SmartCenter Server run on SecurePlatform. You plan to implement VPN-1 NGX in a distributed environment, where the existing machine will be the SmartCenter Server, and a new machine will be the VPN-1 Pro Gateway only. You need to migrate the NG with AI R55 SmartCenter Server configuration, including such items as Internal Certificate Authority files, databases, and Security Policies. How do you request a new license for this VPN-1 NGX upgrade?
A. Request a VPN-1 NGX SmartCenter Server license, using the new machine’s IP addres. Request a new local license for the NGX VPN-1 Pro Gateway.
B. Request a VPN-1 NGX SmartCenter Server license, using the new machine’s IP addres. Request a new central license for the NGX VPN-1 Pro Gateway.
C. Request a new VPN-1 NGX SmartCenter Server license, using the NG with AI SmartCenter Server IP address. Request a new central license for the NGX VPN-1 Pro Gateway.
D. Request a VPN-1 NGX SmartCenter Server license, using the NG with AI SmartCenter Server IP address. Request a new central license for the NGX VPN-1 Pro Gateway, licenses for the existing SmartCenter Server IP address.
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 64
Certkiller is a Security Administrator for Certkiller.com. Certkiller.com has two sites using pre-shared secrets in its VPN. The two sites are Boston and New York. Jack has just been informed that a new office is opening in Houston, and she must enable all three sites to connect via the VPN to each other. Three Security Gateways are managed by the same SmartCenter Server, behind the New York Security Gateway. Mrs. Bill decides to switch from a pre-shared secrets to Certificates issued by the Internal Certificate Authority (ICA). After creating the Houston gateway object with the proper VPN domain, what are Certkiller’s remaining steps?
1.
Disable “Pre-shared Secret” on the Boston and New York gateway objects.

2.
Add the Houston gateway object into the New York and Boston’s mesh VPN Community.

3.
Manually generate ICA Certificates for all three Security Gateways.

4.
Configure “Traditional mode VPN configuration” in the Houston gateway object’s VPN screen.

5.
Reinstall the Security Policy on all three Security Gateways
A. 1-2-5
B. 1-3-4-5
C. 1-2-3-5
D. 1-2-4-5
E. 1-2-3-4
Correct Answer: C QUESTION 65

Which component functions as the Internal Cerrificate Authority for VPN-1 NGX?
A. VPN-1 Certificate Manager
B. SmartCenter Server
C. SmartLSM
D. Policy Server
E. Security Gateway
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 66
Which Security Server can perform content-security tasks, but CANNOT perform authentication tasks?
A. FTP
B. SMTP
C. Telnet
D. HTTP
E. rlogin
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 67
Certkiller.com has two headquarters, one in Los Angeles and one in Mumbai. Each headquarter includes several branch offices. The branch office only need to communicate with the headquarter in their country, not with each other, and only the headquarters need to communicate directly. What is the BEST configuration for VPN communities among the branch offices and their headquarters, and between the two headquarters? VNP communities comprised of:
A. Two star and one mesh community; each start Community is set up for each site, with headquarters as the center of the Community, and branches as satellites. The mesh Communities are between Mumbai and Los Angeles headquarters.
B. Three mesh Communities: one for Los Angeles and its branches, one for Mumbai headquarters and its branches, and one for Los Angeles and Mumbai headquarters.
C. Two mesh Communities, one for each headquarters; and one start Community, in which Los Angeles is the center of the Community and Mumbai is the satellite.
D. Two mesh Communities, one for each headquarters; and one start Community, in which Mumbai is the center of the Community and Los Angeles is the satellite.
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 68
Certkiller wants to protect internal users from malicious Java code, but Jack does not want to strop Java
scripts.
Which is the best configuration option?

A. Use the URI resource to block Java code
B. Use CVP in the URI resource to block Java code
C. Use the URI resource to strop ActiveX tags
D. Use the URI resource to strop applet tags
E. Use the URI resource to strop script tags
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 69

You want to block corporate-internal-net and localnet from accessing Web sites containing inappropriate content. You are using WebTrends for URL filtering. You have disabled VPN-1 Control connections in the Global properties. Review the diagram and the Security Policies for Certkiller 1 and Certkiller 2 in the exhibit provided. Corporate users and localnet users receive message “Web cannot be displayed”. In SmartView Tracker, you see the connections are dropped with the message “content security is not reachable”. What is the problem, and how do you fix it?
A. The connection from Certkiller 2 to the internal WebTrends server is not allowed in the Policy. Fix: Add a rule in Certkiller 1’s Policy to allow source WebTrendsServer, destination Certkiller 2, service TCP port 18182, and action accept.
B. The connection from Certkiller 2 to the WebTrends server is not allowed in the Policy. Fix: Add a rule in Certkiller 2’s Policy with Source Certkiller 2, destination WebTrends server, service TCP port 18182, and action accept.
C. The connection from Certkiller 1 to the internal WebTrends server is not allowed in the Policy Fix: Add a rule in Certkiller 2’s Policy with source WebTrendsServer, destination Certkiller 1, service TCP port 18182, and action accept.
D. The connection from Certkiller 1 to the internal WebTrends server is not allowed in the Policy. Fix: Add a rule in Certkiller 2’s Policy with source Certkiller 1, destination WebTrends server, service TCP port 18182, and action accept.
E. The connection from Certkiller 1 to the internal WebTrends server is not allowed in the Policy. Fix: Add a rule in Certkiller 1’s Policy to allow source Certkiller 1, destination WebTrends server, service TCP port 18182, and action accept.
Correct Answer:

QUESTION 70
Which service type does NOT invoke a Security Server?
A. HTTP
B. FTP
C. Telnet
D. CIFS
E. SMTP
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 71
Review the following rules and note the Client Authentication Action properties screen, as shown in the exhibit.

After being authenticated by the Security Gateway when a user starts an HTTP connection to a Web site the user tries to FTP to another site using the command line. What happens to the user? The….
A. FTP session is dropprd by the implicit Cleanup Rule.
B. User is prompted from the FTP site only, and does not need to enter username and password for the Client Authentication.
C. FTP connection is dropped by rule 2.
D. FTP data connection is dropped, after the user is authenticated successfully.
E. User is prompted for authentication by the Security Gateway again.
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 72
What is the command to see the licenses of the Security Gateway Certkiller from your SmartCenter Server?
A. print Certkiller
B. fw licprint Certkiller
C. fw tab -t fwlic Certkiller
D. cplic print Certkiller
E. fw lic print Certkiller
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 73
Ophelia is the security Administrator for a shipping company. Her company uses a custom application to update the distribution database. The custom application includes a service used only to notify remote sites that the distribution database is malfunctioning. The perimeter Security Gateways Rule Base includes a rule to accept this traffic. Ophelia needs to be notified, via atext message to her cellular phone, whenever traffic is accepted on this rule. Which of the following options is MOST appropriate for Ophelia’s requirement?
A. User-defined alert script
B. Logging implied rules
C. SmartViewMonitor
D. Pop-up API
E. SNMP trap
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 74
Choose the BEST sequence for configuring user management on SmartDashboard, for use with an LDAP server:
A. Configure a server object for the LDAP Account Unit, enable LDAP in Global Properties, and create an LDAP server using an OPSEC application.
B. Configure a server object for the LDAP Account Unit, enable LDAP in Global Properties, and create an LDAP resource object.
C. Enable LDAP in Global Properties, configure a host-node object for the LDAP Server, and configure a server object for the LDAP Account Unit.
D. Configure a server object for the LDAP Account Unit, and create an LDAP resource object.
E. Configure a workstation object for the LDAP server, configure a server object for the LDAP Account Unit, and enable LDAP in Global Properties.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 75
Which of the following is the final step in an NGXbackup?
A. Test restoration in a non-production environment, using the upgradeimport command
B. Move the *.tgz file to another location
C. Run the upgradeexport command
D. Copy the conf directory to another location
E. Run the cpstop command
Correct Answer: B

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